Not according to international law, and that is what counts. Not your JEW HATRED and NAZISM.
If hamas stopped firing illegal weapons into Israel from civilian areas then its civilians would not be killed
International law requires Israel to get out of Palestine.
It's not that clear-cut.
"Operative Paragraph One "Affirms that the fulfillment of Charter principles requires the establishment of a just and lasting peace in the Middle East which should include the application of both the following principles:
(i) Withdrawal of Israeli armed forces from territories occupied in the recent conflict;
(ii) Termination of all claims or states of belligerency and respect for and acknowledgment of the sovereignty, territorial integrity and political independence of every State in the area and their right to live in peace within secure and recognized boundaries free from threats or acts of force."
(UN Security Council Resolution 242 Adopted unanimously half a century ago)
Which is not legally enforceable as it is just a set of recommendations. You also need to read the authors side notes that clearly state this means in the goodness of time after a peace treaty has been thrashed out. Why do you always gloss over the next part that tells the arab muslims what they must do. In matter of fact 242 dictates to the arab muslims and not the Jews, which is why the arab muslims try to alter its meaning
Anyone who can read English has no difficulty with the diplomatic meaning of "
Withdrawal of Israeli armed forces from territories occupied". Putting it in one word: ¡Fuera!
It seems that you do as it does not say when or which territories it means, that is in the description of the meaning as provided by the authors.
The most controversial clause in Resolution 242 is the call for the "Withdrawal of Israeli armed forces from territories occupied in the recent conflict." This is linked to the second unambiguous clause calling for "termination of all claims or states of belligerency" and the recognition that "every State in the area" has the "right to live in peace within secure and recognized boundaries free from threats or acts of force."
The British Ambassador who drafted the approved resolution, Lord Caradon, declared after the vote: "It is only the resolution that will bind us, and we regard its wording as clear."
This literal interpretation was repeatedly declared to be the correct one by those involved in drafting the resolution. On October 29, 1969, for example, the British Foreign Secretary told the House of Commons the withdrawal envisaged by the resolution would not be from "all the territories." When asked to explain the British position later, Lord Caradon said: "It would have been wrong to demand that Israel return to its positions of June 4, 1967, because those positions
were undesirable and artificial."
Similarly, Amb. Goldberg explained: "The notable omissions-which were not accidental-in regard to withdrawal are the words 'the' or 'all' and 'the
June 5, 1967 lines'....the resolution speaks of withdrawal from occupied territories without defining the extent of withdrawal."
The resolutions clearly call on the Arab states to make peace with Israel. The principal condition is that Israel withdraw from "territories occupied" in 1967, which means that Israel must withdraw from some, all, or none of the territories still occupied. Since Israel withdrew from 91% of the territories when it
gave up the Sinai, it has already partially, if not wholly, fulfilled its obligation under 242.
So what conclusion do you draw from the true meaning of 242, as opposed to the islamonazi one you seem to think is the real one ?
The Meaning of UN Security Council Resolution 242 | Jewish Virtual Library