"Philosophical foundations"?
The ones you ignore.
The ones I am forcing you to acknowledge -- that you repeatedly deny, e.g., that there are no inherent rights.
Here are the bills proposed before the 2nd amendment was finally enacted.
That the "religiously scrupulous" language was struck proves my arguments, not yours. A provision of negative law, demanding government
not act is not the place to put positive law, especially in a provision that had nothing to do with militia operations.
The other argument against that clause was it could allow "constructive powers" that it could be employed to argue it gives Congress power to declare who is religiously scrupulous (to the point of everyone), and force disarmament of the citizenry.
Now, THAT'S what teabaggers and the courts really wanted passed.
Huh? WTF is that supposed to mean?
So....Are you going to ignore 3/4 of that bill too?
Uhhhhhh, yeah . . . especially because that language was rejected.
Here is one from later, July 28.
"A well regulated militia, composed of the body of the people, being the best security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed; but no person religiously scrupulous shall be compelled to bear arms".
The word "best" was replaced with "necessary" because again, since this was
negative law, demanding government not act, it was feared the word "best" could work to negate the clause 12 power to raise and support the national armed forces.
Then the final version.
"A well regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms, shall not be infringed".
IF ""The right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed; a well armed and well regulated militia being the best security of a free country", passed as the final version that passed, we wouldn't even be arguing.
If, if, if . . . You refuse to acknowledge the principles behind what was passed, you hardly have any competency to debate what was rejected.
YES.
"During the era of slavery in the United States, the education of enslaved African Americans, except for religious instruction, was discouraged, and eventually made illegal in most of the Southern states.
The Bill of Rights was not ever intended to be enforced on the states. It was the ineffectiveness of the Civil Rights Act of 1866 and the Freedman's Acts, restraining the discriminatory laws of the rebel states (including their anti-gun laws) that made the 14th Amendment an imperative.
As the fallacy is read in context..........YES.
No
Wrong.
Wrong.
Well how would a person even attain that without.........READING?
Correct, it protects a pre-existing right that was not granted by the enumeration but merely recognized and secured from illegitmate government action by the provision. You violate that principle.
BS.
Your entire premise is a folly.
But you cannot offer any argument based in law, why it is wrong. All you have is your malformed conclusions based in misguided, corrupted by 20th Century leftist politics personal opinions.
Marx wasn't a founding father . . . The oppositional arguments the founders / framers worked with and chose from, did not espouse any of the political positions you embrace today.
Based in extensive study, opinion you cannot refute with any legal argument.
There are no
"Inherent" or "Retained" rights.
Someone GAVE you those "rights" then called them retained or inherent.
Rights are not tangible transactional things. yes, they reside as philosophical principles but they are recognized and enforced by the contract known as the US Constituion. It doesn't matter if you reject the premises of inherent rights and what that demands of the US government, what matters is the government recognizes them and is contractually bound to treat them as real and binding. See the codification of Federalist argument AGAINST a bill of rights we see as the 9th and 10th Amendments . . . What do those Amendments mean to you, what does the word "retained" as a descriptor of the nature of rights, mean to you?
Then WTF did they base their decision on?
The foundational principles that all power originally resided in the people's hands and the government only possesses the limited, express powers granted to it -- with some powers formally and expressly called out as "rights" (exceptions of powers not granted, see Federalist 84) and forever held inviolate.
And why do teabaggers wash, rinse and repeat........" the right of the people to keep and bear arms, shall not be infringed"?
Because that is the "restrictive clause" that binds government action against the right . . . It is repeatedly quoted by gun rights supporters because anti-liberty people like you are incessantly trying to negate that unconditional guarantee and qualify the unqualified reservation by the people forbidding government to act.
You quoted my question but did not otherwise acknowledge it and certainly did not answer it:
"(since) the right to arms is in no way dependent upon the Constitution for its existence, how can the words upon which the right DOES NOT DEPEND be "interpreted" to dictate the nature, scope and extent of the right to arms?"
Care to answer that question?
.