RE: The NEWER Official Discussion Thread for the creation of Israel, the UN and the British Mandate
⁜→ P F Tinmore, et al,
It is entirely legal → because the entirety of the boundaries that established the territories to which the Mandate for Palestine applied,
(thereinafter described as Palestine) are historical only.
✦ THE RULE OF LAW:
Every State has the duty to refrain from the threat or use of force to violate
the existing international boundaries of another State or as a means of
solving international disputes, including territorial disputes and problems
concerning frontiers of States.
And Israel sits inside Palestine's international borders. How can that be legal?
Link?
(COMMENT)
The State of Israel replaced that portion of the territory to which the Mandate for Palestine applied. It was not inserted into the territory as you imply.
Israel DOES NOT sit inside Palestine because, in 1948, there was no territory designated as the State of Palestine. And don't bringup that September 1948 All Palestine Government crap.
An undefined State of Palestine was Declared in 1988 and the UN Decided to accord to Palestine non-member observer State status in the United Nations in 2012.
The Rule of Law says to "including territorial disputes and problems concerning frontiers of States." If the Arab Palestinians had a leg to stand-on based on this bogus claim, they would have taken legal action by now.
Most Respectfully,
R