So preforming wiretaps without warrants isn't warrantless wiretapping. That's a pretty dumb argument, so it's not shocking that you'd make it.
Do you need a wiretap to intercept a telephone communication between Osama bin Laden in Afghanistan and one of his subordinates in -- pick a place --Somalia?
The correct answer of course is no.
So if you DO somehow place a tap on his phone, you
could say that it's a warrantless wiretap by very trivial definition. but it would be a meaningless asssertion since warrants do not apply.
Now change it. In time of war, Osama in Afghanistan calls Mohammed Wannabe in Tonawanda, New York. Do you need a fucking warrant, smartass? The correct answer remains NO.
What if Mohammed Wannabe in Tonawanda, NY places along distance call to Osama bin Laden in Afghanistan during a time of war? Is a warrant needed? You might say yes, but up until very recently at least the ONLY correct legal answer would be an emphatic "NO!"
I'll even go a bit further. US Attorney GETS a warrant to wiretap Don Bugsy Mafioso in NYC. Don Bugsy Mafioso (from that NY wiretapped telephone) calls Don Luigi in Philly to discuss some mob criminal business. Don Luigi's part of the conversation is CLEARLY overheard SOLELY because of the lawfully obtained wiretap FOR ANOTHER INDIVIDUAL. Does the US Government have to tell Don Luigi in Philly that his conversation has been overheard? YOU might say "yes." But you'd be wrong.
But the PROGRAM the Bush Administration addressed was the Surveillance Program and the electronic gathering of information (for the most part) involved things OTHER THAN "wiretaps."
It doesn't surprise anybody who is familiar with you that you don't know any of these things.
It is now (as it has long been) your argument which is the dumb one. Dumb and quite ignorant.