The Ottomans ceded the land to the respective successor states, not to the allied powers or the mandates.
This is just wrong, wrong, wrong, wrong. You keep claiming this despite how many times you've been demonstrated to be wrong about this.
The Ottoman (Turkish) Empire did not cede the territory in question to anyone. Period. Full stop. Read the bloody treaty.
ARTICLE 16.
Turkey hereby renounces all rights and title whatsoever over or respecting the territories situated outside the frontiers laid down in the present Treaty and the islands other than those over which her sovereignty is recognised by the said Treaty, the future of these territories and islands being settled or to be settled by the parties concerned.
Read that first sentence again:
Turkey hereby renounces all rights and title whatsoever
There is no ...."in favor of", or "cedes to". Turkey renounces all rights and title. Period. Full stop. So ENOUGH with the "Ottomans ceded the land to successor States'. She did not. She renounced them.
Article 16 merely released the territory. Article 30 said who was going to get that territory
Article 30 says no such thing.
Article 30.
Turkish subjects habitually resident in territory which in accordance with the provisions of the present Treaty is detached from Turkey will become ipsofacto, in the conditions laid down by the local law, nationals of the State to which such territory is transferred.
This states that the residents of the territory will become citizens of the sovereign to whom the territory is transferred. It in no way indicates who that sovereign is. (That sovereign, however, IS mentioned by the Parties to whom the power of decision was transferred by this Treaty.)
and who would be the citizens of their respective territory.
Yes. This is correct. The Turkish subjects habitually resident in the territory were to become nationals of the State (sovereign) to whom the territory was transferred. (And, in point of fact, this actually came to pass).
The citizens are the ones with the right to sovereignty.
Yes, you keep saying that, but have yet to provide the source of this in law. I don't disagree with you, necessarily. As a general concept, it is not disagreeable or even incorrect, in my opinion. HOWEVER, you tend to deliberately conflate/confuse/ignore who the legal 'citizens' were (according to those with the sovereign power to make those decisions). And you tend to assume that the citizens had no agency to choose for themselves their own sovereignty (self-determination).