WV seceded from Virginia and was accepted into the Union by Congress as a state. This is really your only case under statute and law for the legality of secession, though I happen to agree with you that it was legal. We just can't build a compelling enough case.
Article Four of The United States Constitution said:
New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.
Did Virginia vote to allow WV to split off?
The question of leaving the Union is not addressed by the Constitution. In
Texas v. White, 74
U.S. 700 (1869), the Supreme Court suggested that the Constitution ordained the "perpetuity and indissolubility of the Union" The court did allow some possibility of the divisibility "through revolution, or through consent of the States."
[4][5]
Article Four of the United States Constitution - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
SCOTUS said:
But the perpetuity and indissolubility of the Union by no means implies the loss of distinct and individual existence, or of the right of self-government, by the States. Under the Articles of Confederation, each State retained its sovereignty, freedom, and independence, and every power, jurisdiction, and right not expressly delegated to the United States. Under the Constitution, though the powers of the States were much restricted, still all powers not delegated to the United States nor prohibited to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people. And we have already had occasion to remark at this term that
the people of each State compose a State, having its own government, and endowed with all the functions essential to separate and independent existence, and that, "without the States in union, there could be no such political body as the United States." [n12] Not only, therefore, can there be no loss of separate and independent autonomy to the States through their union under the Constitution, but it may be not unreasonably said that the preservation of the States, and the maintenance of their governments, are as much within the design and care of the Constitution as the preservation of the Union and the maintenance of the National government.
(emphasis added)
SCOTUS knew that the Constitution was clear on this matter, which is why they then tried to spin their statement by claiming something which the Constitution never says is somehow implied
The Constitution, in all its provisions, looks to an indestructible Union composed of indestructible States. [p726] When, therefore, Texas became one of the United States, she entered into an indissoluble relation.... All the obligations of perpetual union, and all the guaranties of republican government in the Union, attached at once to the State. The act which consummated her admission into the Union was something more than a compact; it was the incorporation of a new member into the political body. And it was final. The union between Texas and the other States was as complete, as perpetual, and as indissoluble as the union between the original States. There was no place for reconsideration or revocation, except through revolution or through consent of the States. Considered therefore as transactions under the Constitution, the ordinance of secession, adopted by the convention and ratified by a majority of the citizens of Texas, and all the acts of her legislature intended to give effect to that ordinance, were absolutely null. They were utterly without operation in law.
Texas v. White
This assertion, however, is founded in no Constitutional text, and no phrase from the Constitution ca be cited to support it. Here we see that the entire matter was addressed not by the proper interpretation of constitutional law, but by the effective writing of new law from the bench- law that directly contradicts the text the court cites earlier in this publication.
America, if you recall, was founded in rebellion and built on the right to self-determination. The FF spoke oft of the rightfulness of armed rebellion and revolution in the face of tyranny. The only logical conclusion ios that both the letter and the spirit of the Constitution supports the right to secede as a less violent alternative to open revolution.
Here we see that the very purpose of this action was media spin and political correctness:
It certainly follows that the State did not cease to be a State, nor her citizens to be citizens of the Union. If this were otherwise, the State must have become foreign, and her citizens foreigners. The war must have ceased to be a war for the suppression of rebellion, and must have become a war for conquest and subjugation.
As you can see, the entire purpose for this illegal ruling was revisionism and the effort to make America look good, and avoid the stain of being called tyrants.
Of course, they had to admit that things had changed, lest it be said that they sent the army ofter American citizens
And it is by no means a logical conclusion from the premises which we have endeavored to establish that the governmental relations of Texas to the Union remained unaltered.
I find this tidbit of interest, as well
A great social change increased the difficulty of the situation. Slaves, in the insurgent States, with certain local exceptions, had been declared free by the Proclamation of Emancipation, and whatever questions might be made as to the effect of that act under the Constitution...
Point out in the Constitution where it says states can secede. You can't.
I already did. Tenth Amendment. The COnastitution describes what authrity is denied the member States. All other Authority, unless otherwise designates to the Central Authority, is theirs.
To remind you: slavery was the compelling reason for secession. Your counter arguments, respectfully, have been compellingly weak and ineffective.
Slavery was not the real issue. It was the battleground for it touched on all the underlying concerns. The North was acting in the interest of rich businessmen. Everything we see today started with the Union's refusal tto recognize the CSA and the Confederate War for Independence.
The states under the Constitution don't have the authority to decide which laws are or aren't constitutional. If a state thinks a law is unconstitutional their constitutional recourse is to challenge it in the courts, not secede.
Secession is prohibited de facto because secession requires breaking federal laws.
The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor
prohibited by it
to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people.
That includes the right to tell the fed to fuck off and die. Only slaves are denied the right to leave. The right to secede is summed up in the need to refresh the tree of liberty with the blood of patriots and tyrants.
, there is no 'right' for states to secede. Any more than there's any right for counties to secede from states, or towns to secede from counties, or you and your half acre to secede from your town.
The tenth amendment says otherwise. Before the CWfI, the united States
were. After the financial interests of the northern businessmen were deemed worth killing for, it became 'the United States is'. All these things continue to the modern day.