The birth of Zionist propaganda on film

[theliq]

montelatici, et al,

I'm not sure that you would recognize the reality of a political condition even if you were sitting on it.

No Jew hatred at all, just facts. You are the one that uses lies and propaganda to stoke your slobbering hate for the native Christians and Muslims of Palestine.

(COMMENT)

I don't think anyone in Israel or the Western World has any problem with Christians. I don't know why you keep bringing that up. Other than the general statistical probability that some crime is associated with people in a given population density and happen to be christians, there is no conflict I am aware of...

The Christians are a different sub-group than Islamic Radicals. They are not generally associated with Jihadists. While I'm not sure whether whether, in the modern day context, if you could number Christians among the Fedayeen (the religious "willing to sacrifice themselves for God"). I think we go back to the probability ask yourself: how many insurgents, terrorist, suicide bombers, and asymmetric resistance fighters have you heard of in the Middle East that were Christian??? I'm pretty sure that over the last century, there must have been such an example. But I'm reasonably sure that the number is probabilistically insignificant.

I cannot imagine WHY you consistently refer to them. I'm not even sure that in the last year, anyone in the discussion group, besides yourself even mentions them, except in passing. I know of no significant deadly threat by Radical Christians in Israel or any of the immediate adjacent countries.

Even in the US Extremist Christians is fairly uncommon. It is there, but generally we pay it no mind. The last big terrorist attack (that I can think of just now) by extremist Christians ("willing to sacrifice themselves for God") might be the Wisconsin Sikh Temple Massacre in 2012. The we just Islamophobes.

Most Respectfully,
R

Do you believe that the Palestinian Christians that were dispossessed by the Zionist Jews welcomed their dispossession? The Zionists dispossessed Christians as well as Muslims, that's what you ignore. You also ignore the fact that Palestinian Christian Freedom Fighters are jailed along with Muslim Palestinians. And, you obviously don't know who George Habash was.


Palestine through the eyes of the Christian Palestinian freedom Fighter & Hero Chris Bandak - one of the Palestinian releasead p

It is a shame that the few, remaining Christians in Islamist occupied Gaza'istan and the West Bank will soon be purged from those areas. That is always the fate of non-Islamists in areas controlled by the Peaceful Inner Strugglers.


Palestinian Christians | ICEJ International

Under siege and without protection, the Christian population under Palestinian rule has dwindled with each passing year. In October, 2007, after repeated threats, Rammi Ayyad was brutally murdered outside the only Christian Bookstore in Gaza. In 2008, a bomb was set off at one Christian school in Gaza, while at another, run by the Baptist Church, guards were assaulted and a bus hijacked.

Even though Hamas denies involvement in the attacks and claims that it is attempting to protect the small, ancient Christian community in Gaza, attacks on the 3,000 Christians residing there have increased since the Muslim terror militia came seized power.

So you link to a Christian Zionist propaganda site. Fake Christians.

AND FAKE JEWS TOO Tinnie

 

[Phoenall]

P F Tinmore, Shusha, et al,

You still do not get it... If I've explained it once, I bet I said it a thousand times.

I have read all of those. None of them gave any land to Israel. Israel occupies Palestine.

Let's assume you are right. (You're not, but let's just pretend).

Why can't the Jewish people, as the nation of Israel, secede from Greater Palestine?

(COMMENT)

The reason that P F Tinmore cannot find any document that "gave any land to Israel" is because --- quite frankly --- in this case the the sovereignty and independence (1948) was acquired by declaration; not a sale, purchase, or real estate deal.

•• Declarative Theory under Westphalia Terms.
•• Declarative theory of statehood defines a state as a person in international law.
•• Political Theory in the Declaration of Independence.
​

The reason why Israel cannot secede from Palestine is because at the termination of the Mandate, the Successor Government was the UN Palestine Commission. The in conjunction with the UNPC, completion -- to the extent possible and not interfered with by the Arab League --- the UN adopted Steps Preparatory to Independence. The independence was announced and acknowledged. Recognition by the Arab Palestinians is not required. The Arab League and Arab Higher Committee rejected all offered attempts at the inclusion of the Arab Palestinians in the self-governing processes.

The Jewish State of Israel exercised the right of self-determination. It established sovereignty, and defended that sovereignty by Arab League Intruders in contravention with Chapter I of the Charter.

• All Peoples (including Israel) have the Right of Determination...
• All Peoples (including Israel) have the Right to be free of Arab League and Arab Palestine aggression.

Most Respectfully,
R

I can link to it every time so why cant tinny read the link and be educated, as in here


Palestine is a Geographical Area, Not a Nationality

Delineating the final geographical area of Palestine designated for the Jewish National Home on September 16, 1922, as described by the Mandatory:



PALESTINE


INTRODUCTORY.


POSITION, ETC.
Palestine lies on the western edge of the continent of Asia between Latitude 30º N. and 33º N., Longitude 34º 30’ E. and 35º 30’ E.

On the North it is bounded by the French Mandated Territories of Syria and Lebanon, on the East by Syria and Trans-Jordan, on the South-west by the Egyptian province of Sinai, on the South-east by the Gulf of Aqaba and on the West by the Mediterranean. The frontier with Syria was laid down by the Anglo-French Convention of the 23rd December, 1920, and its delimitation was ratified in 1923. Briefly stated, the boundaries are as follows: -

North. – From Ras en Naqura on the Mediterranean eastwards to a point west of Qadas, thence in a northerly direction to Metulla, thence east to a point west of Banias.

East. – From Banias in a southerly direction east of Lake Hula to Jisr Banat Ya’pub, thence along a line east of the Jordan and the Lake of Tiberias and on to El Hamme station on the Samakh-Deraa railway line, thence along the centre of the river Yarmuq to its confluence with the Jordan, thence along the centres of the Jordan, the Dead Sea and the Wadi Araba to a point on the Gulf of Aqaba two miles west of the town of Aqaba, thence along the shore of the Gulf of Aqaba to Ras Jaba.

South. – From Ras Jaba in a generally north-westerly direction to the junction of the Neki-Aqaba and Gaza-Aqaba Roads, thence to a point west-north-west of Ain Maghara and thence to a point on the Mediterranean coast north-west of Rafa.

West. – The Mediterranean Sea.





It is very clearly stating that a parcel of land is set aside as the Jewish National home under International treaty, as we know once International treaty is accepted it becomes International law.


Israel has already seceded from greater palestine when it declared independence on the land granted under International laws, and the UN entered this into the UN charter with the new additions for 1949. Now we need the UN to accept and enforce international law

 

[Phoenall]

P F Tinmore, Shusha, et al,

You still do not get it... If I've explained it once, I bet I said it a thousand times.

I have read all of those. None of them gave any land to Israel. Israel occupies Palestine.

Let's assume you are right. (You're not, but let's just pretend).

Why can't the Jewish people, as the nation of Israel, secede from Greater Palestine?

(COMMENT)

The reason that P F Tinmore cannot find any document that "gave any land to Israel" is because --- quite frankly --- in this case the the sovereignty and independence (1948) was acquired by declaration; not a sale, purchase, or real estate deal.

•• Declarative Theory under Westphalia Terms.
•• Declarative theory of statehood defines a state as a person in international law.
•• Political Theory in the Declaration of Independence.
​

The reason why Israel cannot secede from Palestine is because at the termination of the Mandate, the Successor Government was the UN Palestine Commission. The in conjunction with the UNPC, completion -- to the extent possible and not interfered with by the Arab League --- the UN adopted Steps Preparatory to Independence. The independence was announced and acknowledged. Recognition by the Arab Palestinians is not required. The Arab League and Arab Higher Committee rejected all offered attempts at the inclusion of the Arab Palestinians in the self-governing processes.

The Jewish State of Israel exercised the right of self-determination. It established sovereignty, and defended that sovereignty by Arab League Intruders in contravention with Chapter I of the Charter.

• All Peoples (including Israel) have the Right of Determination...
• All Peoples (including Israel) have the Right to be free of Arab League and Arab Palestine aggression.

Most Respectfully,
R

The reason that P F Tinmore cannot find any document that "gave any land to Israel" is because --- quite frankly --- in this case the the sovereignty and independence (1948) was acquired by declaration; not a sale, purchase, or real estate deal.​

--------------------------------

By contrast, the declarative theory of statehood defines a state as a person in international law if it meets the following criteria: 1) a defined territory; 2) a permanent population; 3) a government and 4) a capacity to enter into relations with other states. According to declarative theory, an entity's statehood is independent of its recognition by other states. The declarative model was most famously expressed in the 1933 Montevideo Convention.[25]

Article 3 of the Montevideo Convention declares that political statehood is independent of recognition by other states, and the state is not prohibited from defending itself.​

There are several problems with the creation of Israel. The most glaring is that Israel has never had a defined territory. It has no land or borders. Israel occupies Palestine as the foundation of its settler colonialism.

The Palestinians have never surrendered, ceded land, or recognized Israel.

The government of Israel was created in the direct opposition of the vast majority of the people.

Thomas Jefferson also used Rousseau’s social contract theory to justify his assertion of independence. Jefferson stated, “Governments are instituted… deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed” (Declaration of Independence). The idea of consent stems from Rousseau’s On the Social Contract. He stated that this contract was a “reciprocal commitment” (Rousseau 433) between people in a society and the government they create. He believed a “social compact” (Rousseau 432) was needed to form a government in which people gave consent to the government being formed.​

Note: from your links.

And making islamonazi nations was in direct opposition of the vast majority of the people wasnt it, but you support and defend their creation.


WHY NOT JUST ADMIT THAT YOU WANT TO SEE THE JEWS DENIED THEIR RIGHTS AND WIPED OUT SO YOU CAN STEAL THEIR WEALTH..............

 

[Phoenall]

As can be seen, the Zionists started using film propaganda early.

The myth of "Jews making the desert bloom", was based on a clip from this film. The beach sand dunes, with invaders standing around, were filmed with productive Christian and Muslim owned orchards just behind the photographer. This was what created the myth.

Most of the Zionist supporting morons here believe this myth and actually mention in their posts.

*snip jew haters video*

the rise of pro palestinian terrorist propaganda started with vanessa redgrave.

more importantly is that it's probably time for you to learn something about history.

*shrug*

NO JILLIAN the rights(NOT PROPAGANDA) for Palestinian Freedom started in 1948.......Redgrave was a late starter....steven ps this maybe the time for you to understand Zionist/Palestinian history lady.....just sayin

And just what rights did they have in 1948 then, or is this something you cant find because the hate sites dont list them.

What about the Jews rights, and that is all the Jews with no exception's from 1948. OR DO YOU WANT TO REMOVE ALL THE RIGHTS FROM THE JEWS AND SEE THEM WIPED OUT

 

[Phoenall]

montelatici, et al,

I'm not sure that you would recognize the reality of a political condition even if you were sitting on it.

No Jew hatred at all, just facts. You are the one that uses lies and propaganda to stoke your slobbering hate for the native Christians and Muslims of Palestine.

(COMMENT)

I don't think anyone in Israel or the Western World has any problem with Christians. I don't know why you keep bringing that up. Other than the general statistical probability that some crime is associated with people in a given population density and happen to be christians, there is no conflict I am aware of...

The Christians are a different sub-group than Islamic Radicals. They are not generally associated with Jihadists. While I'm not sure whether whether, in the modern day context, if you could number Christians among the Fedayeen (the religious "willing to sacrifice themselves for God"). I think we go back to the probability ask yourself: how many insurgents, terrorist, suicide bombers, and asymmetric resistance fighters have you heard of in the Middle East that were Christian??? I'm pretty sure that over the last century, there must have been such an example. But I'm reasonably sure that the number is probabilistically insignificant.

I cannot imagine WHY you consistently refer to them. I'm not even sure that in the last year, anyone in the discussion group, besides yourself even mentions them, except in passing. I know of no significant deadly threat by Radical Christians in Israel or any of the immediate adjacent countries.

Even in the US Extremist Christians is fairly uncommon. It is there, but generally we pay it no mind. The last big terrorist attack (that I can think of just now) by extremist Christians ("willing to sacrifice themselves for God") might be the Wisconsin Sikh Temple Massacre in 2012. The we just Islamophobes.

Most Respectfully,
R

Do you believe that the Palestinian Christians that were dispossessed by the Zionist Jews welcomed their dispossession? The Zionists dispossessed Christians as well as Muslims, that's what you ignore. You also ignore the fact that Palestinian Christian Freedom Fighters are jailed along with Muslim Palestinians. And, you obviously don't know who George Habash was.


Palestine through the eyes of the Christian Palestinian freedom Fighter & Hero Chris Bandak - one of the Palestinian releasead p

It is a shame that the few, remaining Christians in Islamist occupied Gaza'istan and the West Bank will soon be purged from those areas. That is always the fate of non-Islamists in areas controlled by the Peaceful Inner Strugglers.


Palestinian Christians | ICEJ International

Under siege and without protection, the Christian population under Palestinian rule has dwindled with each passing year. In October, 2007, after repeated threats, Rammi Ayyad was brutally murdered outside the only Christian Bookstore in Gaza. In 2008, a bomb was set off at one Christian school in Gaza, while at another, run by the Baptist Church, guards were assaulted and a bus hijacked.

Even though Hamas denies involvement in the attacks and claims that it is attempting to protect the small, ancient Christian community in Gaza, attacks on the 3,000 Christians residing there have increased since the Muslim terror militia came seized power.

So you link to a Christian Zionist propaganda site. Fake Christians.

AND FAKE JEWS TOO Tinnie

Time to put you on the spot and ask you to show one of these fake Jews, and then provide the evidence that shows they are a fake Jew. And it has to be real not your usual rip off from the hate sites

 

[Hollie]

P F Tinmore, Shusha, et al,

You still do not get it... If I've explained it once, I bet I said it a thousand times.

I have read all of those. None of them gave any land to Israel. Israel occupies Palestine.

Let's assume you are right. (You're not, but let's just pretend).

Why can't the Jewish people, as the nation of Israel, secede from Greater Palestine?

(COMMENT)

The reason that P F Tinmore cannot find any document that "gave any land to Israel" is because --- quite frankly --- in this case the the sovereignty and independence (1948) was acquired by declaration; not a sale, purchase, or real estate deal.

•• Declarative Theory under Westphalia Terms.
•• Declarative theory of statehood defines a state as a person in international law.
•• Political Theory in the Declaration of Independence.
​

The reason why Israel cannot secede from Palestine is because at the termination of the Mandate, the Successor Government was the UN Palestine Commission. The in conjunction with the UNPC, completion -- to the extent possible and not interfered with by the Arab League --- the UN adopted Steps Preparatory to Independence. The independence was announced and acknowledged. Recognition by the Arab Palestinians is not required. The Arab League and Arab Higher Committee rejected all offered attempts at the inclusion of the Arab Palestinians in the self-governing processes.

The Jewish State of Israel exercised the right of self-determination. It established sovereignty, and defended that sovereignty by Arab League Intruders in contravention with Chapter I of the Charter.

• All Peoples (including Israel) have the Right of Determination...
• All Peoples (including Israel) have the Right to be free of Arab League and Arab Palestine aggression.

Most Respectfully,
R

The reason that P F Tinmore cannot find any document that "gave any land to Israel" is because --- quite frankly --- in this case the the sovereignty and independence (1948) was acquired by declaration; not a sale, purchase, or real estate deal.​

--------------------------------

By contrast, the declarative theory of statehood defines a state as a person in international law if it meets the following criteria: 1) a defined territory; 2) a permanent population; 3) a government and 4) a capacity to enter into relations with other states. According to declarative theory, an entity's statehood is independent of its recognition by other states. The declarative model was most famously expressed in the 1933 Montevideo Convention.[25]

Article 3 of the Montevideo Convention declares that political statehood is independent of recognition by other states, and the state is not prohibited from defending itself.​

There are several problems with the creation of Israel. The most glaring is that Israel has never had a defined territory. It has no land or borders. Israel occupies Palestine as the foundation of its settler colonialism.

The Palestinians have never surrendered, ceded land, or recognized Israel.

The government of Israel was created in the direct opposition of the vast majority of the people.

Thomas Jefferson also used Rousseau’s social contract theory to justify his assertion of independence. Jefferson stated, “Governments are instituted… deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed” (Declaration of Independence). The idea of consent stems from Rousseau’s On the Social Contract. He stated that this contract was a “reciprocal commitment” (Rousseau 433) between people in a society and the government they create. He believed a “social compact” (Rousseau 432) was needed to form a government in which people gave consent to the government being formed.​

Note: from your links.

"There are several problems with the creation of Israel. The most glaring is that Israel has never had a defined territory. It has no land or borders. Israel occupies Palestine as the foundation of its settler colonialism."

That's rather silly. Israel has clearly defined territory and the limits of that territory have been defended from Islamist aggression.

Why do you believe that Israel occupies a geographic region you call Pal'istan? Are you still promoting the false claim that "Pal'istan" was a country?

 

[P F Tinmore]

Israel occupies Palestine. Israel is a settler colonial project.

Translation: No, I don't support Israel's right to exist. I support Islamic terrorist attacks against Israel. Death to all Zionists!

Thanks, got it.

You need to read the 1949 UN armistice agreements.

You need to read the LoN mandate of Palestine, the Treaty of Sevres, the Treaty of Lausanne, the international laws granting land to the Jews and the arab muslims, the UN charter and UN resolution 181. All these overturn your interpretation of the UN armistice agreements, and set the record straight that palestine is a mandate and not a nation

I have read all of those. None of them gave any land to Israel. Israel occupies Palestine.

Then you are a LIAR as they very plainly state that this parcel of land is the Jewish National Home. They also state that this parcel of land is trans Jordan for the arab muslim national home, this parcel of land is Syria, this parcel of land is Iraq and this parcel of land is Iran.
It starts with the treaty of Sevres that passes soveriegnty and ownership to the LoN from the Ottomans. Then the treaty of Lausanne ratified the treaty of Sevrers and accepted the idea of the Jewish National home. The many LoN meettings where arab muslim representatives were invited to take part that agreed that the only fair way to deal with the situation was to partition palestine so that it was not wholly muslim or Jew. The UN charter gives the Jews the right to the land allocated under international law as the National home of the Jews, and entered it as part of the UN charter.



ALL YOU HAVE IS A PAPER WRITTEN BY A LIAR AND ISLAMONAZI PROPAGANDIST WHERE HE ALTERS THE WORDS OF TREATIES AND INTERNATIONAL LAWS TO SHOW THAT THE LAND WAS A PALESTINIAN STATE BEFORE IT WAS THE JEWISH NATIONAL HOME. IN OTHER WORD YOU HAVE NOTHING AT ALL OTHER THAN YOUR JEW HATRED AND YOUR DENIAL OF JEWISH RIGHTS

You didn't read the 1949 UN armistice agreements.

 

[P F Tinmore]

P F Tinmore, Shusha, et al,

You still do not get it... If I've explained it once, I bet I said it a thousand times.

I have read all of those. None of them gave any land to Israel. Israel occupies Palestine.

Let's assume you are right. (You're not, but let's just pretend).

Why can't the Jewish people, as the nation of Israel, secede from Greater Palestine?

(COMMENT)

The reason that P F Tinmore cannot find any document that "gave any land to Israel" is because --- quite frankly --- in this case the the sovereignty and independence (1948) was acquired by declaration; not a sale, purchase, or real estate deal.

•• Declarative Theory under Westphalia Terms.
•• Declarative theory of statehood defines a state as a person in international law.
•• Political Theory in the Declaration of Independence.
​

The reason why Israel cannot secede from Palestine is because at the termination of the Mandate, the Successor Government was the UN Palestine Commission. The in conjunction with the UNPC, completion -- to the extent possible and not interfered with by the Arab League --- the UN adopted Steps Preparatory to Independence. The independence was announced and acknowledged. Recognition by the Arab Palestinians is not required. The Arab League and Arab Higher Committee rejected all offered attempts at the inclusion of the Arab Palestinians in the self-governing processes.

The Jewish State of Israel exercised the right of self-determination. It established sovereignty, and defended that sovereignty by Arab League Intruders in contravention with Chapter I of the Charter.

• All Peoples (including Israel) have the Right of Determination...
• All Peoples (including Israel) have the Right to be free of Arab League and Arab Palestine aggression.

Most Respectfully,
R

I can link to it every time so why cant tinny read the link and be educated, as in here


Palestine is a Geographical Area, Not a Nationality

Delineating the final geographical area of Palestine designated for the Jewish National Home on September 16, 1922, as described by the Mandatory:



PALESTINE


INTRODUCTORY.


POSITION, ETC.
Palestine lies on the western edge of the continent of Asia between Latitude 30º N. and 33º N., Longitude 34º 30’ E. and 35º 30’ E.

On the North it is bounded by the French Mandated Territories of Syria and Lebanon, on the East by Syria and Trans-Jordan, on the South-west by the Egyptian province of Sinai, on the South-east by the Gulf of Aqaba and on the West by the Mediterranean. The frontier with Syria was laid down by the Anglo-French Convention of the 23rd December, 1920, and its delimitation was ratified in 1923. Briefly stated, the boundaries are as follows: -

North. – From Ras en Naqura on the Mediterranean eastwards to a point west of Qadas, thence in a northerly direction to Metulla, thence east to a point west of Banias.

East. – From Banias in a southerly direction east of Lake Hula to Jisr Banat Ya’pub, thence along a line east of the Jordan and the Lake of Tiberias and on to El Hamme station on the Samakh-Deraa railway line, thence along the centre of the river Yarmuq to its confluence with the Jordan, thence along the centres of the Jordan, the Dead Sea and the Wadi Araba to a point on the Gulf of Aqaba two miles west of the town of Aqaba, thence along the shore of the Gulf of Aqaba to Ras Jaba.

South. – From Ras Jaba in a generally north-westerly direction to the junction of the Neki-Aqaba and Gaza-Aqaba Roads, thence to a point west-north-west of Ain Maghara and thence to a point on the Mediterranean coast north-west of Rafa.

West. – The Mediterranean Sea.





It is very clearly stating that a parcel of land is set aside as the Jewish National home under International treaty, as we know once International treaty is accepted it becomes International law.


Israel has already seceded from greater palestine when it declared independence on the land granted under International laws, and the UN entered this into the UN charter with the new additions for 1949. Now we need the UN to accept and enforce international law

There was no land transferred to the Jews. The Jewish National Home was the right for Jews to get Palestinian citizenship. A Jewish state or Israel were never mentioned. The Mandate was to create a state that included Jews but failed to do so.

 

[Divine Wind]

Just facts. You are the purveyor of Zionist propaganda, that's all you know. You haven't had the ability to recognize fact.

Nutjobs always feel like they are the only sane ones and everyone else is stupid or insane.

View attachment 98214

Now,Now Divine

You disagree? Have you ever dealt with or studied the mentally ill?

Add to this the number of mentally ill online is easily double or triple the population. Sure, we're all a bit nuts to some degree, but I'm talking about people with mental issues that need treatment; either therapy or medication. Among the most common are fervent conspiracy theorists. I'm not talking about those who kind of wonder if there was a second gunman in Dallas 1963, but who have zero doubt that it was LBJ and the CIA who had JFK assassinated or that Bush was behind 9/11.

In this case, we have antisemitics who fervently believe ZOG agents exist with a plan to dominate the world by controlling the United States of America.

 

[Divine Wind]

Translation: No, I don't support Israel's right to exist. I support Islamic terrorist attacks against Israel. Death to all Zionists!

Thanks, got it.

You need to read the 1949 UN armistice agreements.

You need to read the LoN mandate of Palestine, the Treaty of Sevres, the Treaty of Lausanne, the international laws granting land to the Jews and the arab muslims, the UN charter and UN resolution 181. All these overturn your interpretation of the UN armistice agreements, and set the record straight that palestine is a mandate and not a nation

I have read all of those. None of them gave any land to Israel. Israel occupies Palestine.

Then you are a LIAR as they very plainly state that this parcel of land is the Jewish National Home. They also state that this parcel of land is trans Jordan for the arab muslim national home, this parcel of land is Syria, this parcel of land is Iraq and this parcel of land is Iran.
It starts with the treaty of Sevres that passes soveriegnty and ownership to the LoN from the Ottomans. Then the treaty of Lausanne ratified the treaty of Sevrers and accepted the idea of the Jewish National home. The many LoN meettings where arab muslim representatives were invited to take part that agreed that the only fair way to deal with the situation was to partition palestine so that it was not wholly muslim or Jew. The UN charter gives the Jews the right to the land allocated under international law as the National home of the Jews, and entered it as part of the UN charter.


ALL YOU HAVE IS A PAPER WRITTEN BY A LIAR AND ISLAMONAZI PROPAGANDIST WHERE HE ALTERS THE WORDS OF TREATIES AND INTERNATIONAL LAWS TO SHOW THAT THE LAND WAS A PALESTINIAN STATE BEFORE IT WAS THE JEWISH NATIONAL HOME. IN OTHER WORD YOU HAVE NOTHING AT ALL OTHER THAN YOUR JEW HATRED AND YOUR DENIAL OF JEWISH RIGHTS

You didn't read the 1949 UN armistice agreements.

Obviously neither have you.

 

[Phoenall]

Translation: No, I don't support Israel's right to exist. I support Islamic terrorist attacks against Israel. Death to all Zionists!

Thanks, got it.

You need to read the 1949 UN armistice agreements.

You need to read the LoN mandate of Palestine, the Treaty of Sevres, the Treaty of Lausanne, the international laws granting land to the Jews and the arab muslims, the UN charter and UN resolution 181. All these overturn your interpretation of the UN armistice agreements, and set the record straight that palestine is a mandate and not a nation

I have read all of those. None of them gave any land to Israel. Israel occupies Palestine.

Then you are a LIAR as they very plainly state that this parcel of land is the Jewish National Home. They also state that this parcel of land is trans Jordan for the arab muslim national home, this parcel of land is Syria, this parcel of land is Iraq and this parcel of land is Iran.
It starts with the treaty of Sevres that passes soveriegnty and ownership to the LoN from the Ottomans. Then the treaty of Lausanne ratified the treaty of Sevrers and accepted the idea of the Jewish National home. The many LoN meettings where arab muslim representatives were invited to take part that agreed that the only fair way to deal with the situation was to partition palestine so that it was not wholly muslim or Jew. The UN charter gives the Jews the right to the land allocated under international law as the National home of the Jews, and entered it as part of the UN charter.



ALL YOU HAVE IS A PAPER WRITTEN BY A LIAR AND ISLAMONAZI PROPAGANDIST WHERE HE ALTERS THE WORDS OF TREATIES AND INTERNATIONAL LAWS TO SHOW THAT THE LAND WAS A PALESTINIAN STATE BEFORE IT WAS THE JEWISH NATIONAL HOME. IN OTHER WORD YOU HAVE NOTHING AT ALL OTHER THAN YOUR JEW HATRED AND YOUR DENIAL OF JEWISH RIGHTS

You didn't read the 1949 UN armistice agreements.

Yes I did and they say mandate of palestine borders. Then state that this is to be known as palestine. Also they do not have any signatures from the nation of palestine, showing that one did not exist, but did have them from Egypt, Jordan, Syria, Lebanon and Israel


You did not read the many international laws that I gave showing that the Jews were granted the parcel of land delineated under treaty that also delineated the extent of trans Jordan



YOU HAVE NOTHING AT ALL OTHER THAN YOUR JEW HATRED AND YOUR DENIAL OF JEWISH RIGHTS

 

[P F Tinmore]

You need to read the 1949 UN armistice agreements.

You need to read the LoN mandate of Palestine, the Treaty of Sevres, the Treaty of Lausanne, the international laws granting land to the Jews and the arab muslims, the UN charter and UN resolution 181. All these overturn your interpretation of the UN armistice agreements, and set the record straight that palestine is a mandate and not a nation

I have read all of those. None of them gave any land to Israel. Israel occupies Palestine.

Then you are a LIAR as they very plainly state that this parcel of land is the Jewish National Home. They also state that this parcel of land is trans Jordan for the arab muslim national home, this parcel of land is Syria, this parcel of land is Iraq and this parcel of land is Iran.
It starts with the treaty of Sevres that passes soveriegnty and ownership to the LoN from the Ottomans. Then the treaty of Lausanne ratified the treaty of Sevrers and accepted the idea of the Jewish National home. The many LoN meettings where arab muslim representatives were invited to take part that agreed that the only fair way to deal with the situation was to partition palestine so that it was not wholly muslim or Jew. The UN charter gives the Jews the right to the land allocated under international law as the National home of the Jews, and entered it as part of the UN charter.



ALL YOU HAVE IS A PAPER WRITTEN BY A LIAR AND ISLAMONAZI PROPAGANDIST WHERE HE ALTERS THE WORDS OF TREATIES AND INTERNATIONAL LAWS TO SHOW THAT THE LAND WAS A PALESTINIAN STATE BEFORE IT WAS THE JEWISH NATIONAL HOME. IN OTHER WORD YOU HAVE NOTHING AT ALL OTHER THAN YOUR JEW HATRED AND YOUR DENIAL OF JEWISH RIGHTS

You didn't read the 1949 UN armistice agreements.

Yes I did and they say mandate of palestine borders. Then state that this is to be known as palestine. Also they do not have any signatures from the nation of palestine, showing that one did not exist, but did have them from Egypt, Jordan, Syria, Lebanon and Israel


You did not read the many international laws that

Yes I did and they say mandate of palestine borders.​

Do you have a link for that?

 

[RoccoR]

P F Tinmore, et al,

Yes, yes, yes! You cry this quite often.

P F Tinmore, Shusha, et al,

You still do not get it... If I've explained it once, I bet I said it a thousand times.

I have read all of those. None of them gave any land to Israel. Israel occupies Palestine.

Let's assume you are right. (You're not, but let's just pretend).

Why can't the Jewish people, as the nation of Israel, secede from Greater Palestine?

(COMMENT)

The reason that P F Tinmore cannot find any document that "gave any land to Israel" is because --- quite frankly --- in this case the the sovereignty and independence (1948) was acquired by declaration; not a sale, purchase, or real estate deal.

•• Declarative Theory under Westphalia Terms.
•• Declarative theory of statehood defines a state as a person in international law.
•• Political Theory in the Declaration of Independence.
​

The reason why Israel cannot secede from Palestine is because at the termination of the Mandate, the Successor Government was the UN Palestine Commission. The in conjunction with the UNPC, completion -- to the extent possible and not interfered with by the Arab League --- the UN adopted Steps Preparatory to Independence. The independence was announced and acknowledged. Recognition by the Arab Palestinians is not required. The Arab League and Arab Higher Committee rejected all offered attempts at the inclusion of the Arab Palestinians in the self-governing processes.

The Jewish State of Israel exercised the right of self-determination. It established sovereignty, and defended that sovereignty by Arab League Intruders in contravention with Chapter I of the Charter.

• All Peoples (including Israel) have the Right of Determination...
• All Peoples (including Israel) have the Right to be free of Arab League and Arab Palestine aggression.

Most Respectfully,
R

The reason that P F Tinmore cannot find any document that "gave any land to Israel" is because --- quite frankly --- in this case the the sovereignty and independence (1948) was acquired by declaration; not a sale, purchase, or real estate deal.​

--------------------------------

By contrast, the declarative theory of statehood defines a state as a person in international law if it meets the following criteria: 1) a defined territory; 2) a permanent population; 3) a government and 4) a capacity to enter into relations with other states. According to declarative theory, an entity's statehood is independent of its recognition by other states. The declarative model was most famously expressed in the 1933 Montevideo Convention.[25]

Article 3 of the Montevideo Convention declares that political statehood is independent of recognition by other states, and the state is not prohibited from defending itself.​

There are several problems with the creation of Israel. The most glaring is that Israel has never had a defined territory. It has no land or borders. Israel occupies Palestine as the foundation of its settler colonialism.

The Palestinians have never surrendered, ceded land, or recognized Israel.

The government of Israel was created in the direct opposition of the vast majority of the people.

Thomas Jefferson also used Rousseau’s social contract theory to justify his assertion of independence. Jefferson stated, “Governments are instituted… deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed” (Declaration of Independence). The idea of consent stems from Rousseau’s On the Social Contract. He stated that this contract was a “reciprocal commitment” (Rousseau 433) between people in a society and the government they create. He believed a “social compact” (Rousseau 432) was needed to form a government in which people gave consent to the government being formed.​

Note: from your links.

(COMMENT)

Whether or not the standard meets with the Tinmore Qualifications for a defined territory and a government is irrelevant. Totally irrelevant! BUT --- To YOUR Objections:

ANSWERS:

•• The territory, by the Israelis, was defined (originally and by agreement with the UNPC - the Successor Government to the Mandatory) to Annex "A" and Part II Boundaries, Section B - The Jewish State, UN Resolution 181(II). However, with the improper intervention and acts of aggression by the Arab League, Israeli sovereign control was extended beyond to the Forward Edge of the Battle Area (FEBA) as a result of combat failures by the Arab League.

** The Jewish People had formed the Provisional State Council/Government at the time of the Declaration of Independence. The immediate attacks and invasions by the Arab League Forces prevented the agreed upon "elections" as required by Paragraph 9, Part I, Section B - Steps Preparatory to Independence. In the lull of the conflict (1948 War of Independence), the Provisional Government held elections on the 25 January 1949; allowing a formal government to establish sovereignty out to the FEBA. During the first half of 1949, an Armistice was signed on behalf of the Government of Israel (GOI); which fully demonstrated a recognition of the Government of Israel.

** The Rousseau Model of "Democratic" Government adopted by Thomas Jefferson is not the only interpretation on the methodologies in establishing a "Democratic Government." The current Israeli Basic Law of 2001 comes very close to the Rousseau Model (as did the Basic Law that was replaced in 1968).

•• Article 3, of the Montevideo Convention (1933) applies equally well to Israelis as it does to the Arab Palestinians. In fact, it is probably more so since the Arab side rejected participation in self-governing programs offered by the legitimate Government of Palestine (GOP) prior to the termination of the Mandate; and continued to renounce the Artice 22 critieria of the Covenant by not cooperating with the UNPC successor government (tutelage of such peoples should be entrusted to advanced nations). The Recogntition of Israel was independent of the Hostile Arab League Aggressor Armed Force; or that of the former NAZI Lead Palestinian Irregular Forces. AND, it does not prohibit the Israeli Government from defending itself from the invasion by the Arab League Forces.

Remember: While Hilary Clinton won the popular vote, she lost the election in terms of the Electoral College. That is because America is not a true Democracy; but a Republic and a representative form of government. In a Democracy, the popular vote would have prevailed.​

Just because you don't agree with any given outcome, does not make the outcome wrong.

The continuation of the conflict between the Arab Palestinian People only goes to demonstrate just how generous (but wrong) the Mandatory had been in promoting the Arab Palestinians as being able to stand alone. In more that half a century, no Arab Palestinian has demonstrated to be a progressive and beneficial government to the Arab Palestinian people, any regional initiative, or the cause of peace in a stable and secure region.

Most Respectfully,
R

 

[Phoenall]

P F Tinmore, Shusha, et al,

You still do not get it... If I've explained it once, I bet I said it a thousand times.

I have read all of those. None of them gave any land to Israel. Israel occupies Palestine.

Let's assume you are right. (You're not, but let's just pretend).

Why can't the Jewish people, as the nation of Israel, secede from Greater Palestine?

(COMMENT)

The reason that P F Tinmore cannot find any document that "gave any land to Israel" is because --- quite frankly --- in this case the the sovereignty and independence (1948) was acquired by declaration; not a sale, purchase, or real estate deal.

•• Declarative Theory under Westphalia Terms.
•• Declarative theory of statehood defines a state as a person in international law.
•• Political Theory in the Declaration of Independence.
​

The reason why Israel cannot secede from Palestine is because at the termination of the Mandate, the Successor Government was the UN Palestine Commission. The in conjunction with the UNPC, completion -- to the extent possible and not interfered with by the Arab League --- the UN adopted Steps Preparatory to Independence. The independence was announced and acknowledged. Recognition by the Arab Palestinians is not required. The Arab League and Arab Higher Committee rejected all offered attempts at the inclusion of the Arab Palestinians in the self-governing processes.

The Jewish State of Israel exercised the right of self-determination. It established sovereignty, and defended that sovereignty by Arab League Intruders in contravention with Chapter I of the Charter.

• All Peoples (including Israel) have the Right of Determination...
• All Peoples (including Israel) have the Right to be free of Arab League and Arab Palestine aggression.

Most Respectfully,
R

I can link to it every time so why cant tinny read the link and be educated, as in here


Palestine is a Geographical Area, Not a Nationality

Delineating the final geographical area of Palestine designated for the Jewish National Home on September 16, 1922, as described by the Mandatory:



PALESTINE


INTRODUCTORY.


POSITION, ETC.
Palestine lies on the western edge of the continent of Asia between Latitude 30º N. and 33º N., Longitude 34º 30’ E. and 35º 30’ E.

On the North it is bounded by the French Mandated Territories of Syria and Lebanon, on the East by Syria and Trans-Jordan, on the South-west by the Egyptian province of Sinai, on the South-east by the Gulf of Aqaba and on the West by the Mediterranean. The frontier with Syria was laid down by the Anglo-French Convention of the 23rd December, 1920, and its delimitation was ratified in 1923. Briefly stated, the boundaries are as follows: -

North. – From Ras en Naqura on the Mediterranean eastwards to a point west of Qadas, thence in a northerly direction to Metulla, thence east to a point west of Banias.

East. – From Banias in a southerly direction east of Lake Hula to Jisr Banat Ya’pub, thence along a line east of the Jordan and the Lake of Tiberias and on to El Hamme station on the Samakh-Deraa railway line, thence along the centre of the river Yarmuq to its confluence with the Jordan, thence along the centres of the Jordan, the Dead Sea and the Wadi Araba to a point on the Gulf of Aqaba two miles west of the town of Aqaba, thence along the shore of the Gulf of Aqaba to Ras Jaba.

South. – From Ras Jaba in a generally north-westerly direction to the junction of the Neki-Aqaba and Gaza-Aqaba Roads, thence to a point west-north-west of Ain Maghara and thence to a point on the Mediterranean coast north-west of Rafa.

West. – The Mediterranean Sea.





It is very clearly stating that a parcel of land is set aside as the Jewish National home under International treaty, as we know once International treaty is accepted it becomes International law.


Israel has already seceded from greater palestine when it declared independence on the land granted under International laws, and the UN entered this into the UN charter with the new additions for 1949. Now we need the UN to accept and enforce international law

There was no land transferred to the Jews. The Jewish National Home was the right for Jews to get Palestinian citizenship. A Jewish state or Israel were never mentioned. The Mandate was to create a state that included Jews but failed to do so.

Try again as I have given the actual words that show the land was transferred to the Jews. You have a problem with understanding English it seems as this is very clear in many LoN treaties and international laws. The words The Jewish National home are the clincher as NATIONAL HOME is just that the nation or state of the Jews that they can call home. The mandate created 2 states Jordan and Israel, both of which were part of the area known as palestine. You can deny all you want but until you produce evidence as solid as the LoN treaties you are just DENYING THE JEWS THEIR RIGHTS TO SELF DETERMINATION, A NATIONAL HOME AND THE FREEDOM TO LIVE THERE

 

[Phoenall]

You need to read the LoN mandate of Palestine, the Treaty of Sevres, the Treaty of Lausanne, the international laws granting land to the Jews and the arab muslims, the UN charter and UN resolution 181. All these overturn your interpretation of the UN armistice agreements, and set the record straight that palestine is a mandate and not a nation

I have read all of those. None of them gave any land to Israel. Israel occupies Palestine.

Then you are a LIAR as they very plainly state that this parcel of land is the Jewish National Home. They also state that this parcel of land is trans Jordan for the arab muslim national home, this parcel of land is Syria, this parcel of land is Iraq and this parcel of land is Iran.
It starts with the treaty of Sevres that passes soveriegnty and ownership to the LoN from the Ottomans. Then the treaty of Lausanne ratified the treaty of Sevrers and accepted the idea of the Jewish National home. The many LoN meettings where arab muslim representatives were invited to take part that agreed that the only fair way to deal with the situation was to partition palestine so that it was not wholly muslim or Jew. The UN charter gives the Jews the right to the land allocated under international law as the National home of the Jews, and entered it as part of the UN charter.



ALL YOU HAVE IS A PAPER WRITTEN BY A LIAR AND ISLAMONAZI PROPAGANDIST WHERE HE ALTERS THE WORDS OF TREATIES AND INTERNATIONAL LAWS TO SHOW THAT THE LAND WAS A PALESTINIAN STATE BEFORE IT WAS THE JEWISH NATIONAL HOME. IN OTHER WORD YOU HAVE NOTHING AT ALL OTHER THAN YOUR JEW HATRED AND YOUR DENIAL OF JEWISH RIGHTS

You didn't read the 1949 UN armistice agreements.

Yes I did and they say mandate of palestine borders. Then state that this is to be known as palestine. Also they do not have any signatures from the nation of palestine, showing that one did not exist, but did have them from Egypt, Jordan, Syria, Lebanon and Israel


You did not read the many international laws that

Yes I did and they say mandate of palestine borders.​

Do you have a link for that?

UN armistice agreements

 

[P F Tinmore]

I have read all of those. None of them gave any land to Israel. Israel occupies Palestine.

Then you are a LIAR as they very plainly state that this parcel of land is the Jewish National Home. They also state that this parcel of land is trans Jordan for the arab muslim national home, this parcel of land is Syria, this parcel of land is Iraq and this parcel of land is Iran.
It starts with the treaty of Sevres that passes soveriegnty and ownership to the LoN from the Ottomans. Then the treaty of Lausanne ratified the treaty of Sevrers and accepted the idea of the Jewish National home. The many LoN meettings where arab muslim representatives were invited to take part that agreed that the only fair way to deal with the situation was to partition palestine so that it was not wholly muslim or Jew. The UN charter gives the Jews the right to the land allocated under international law as the National home of the Jews, and entered it as part of the UN charter.



ALL YOU HAVE IS A PAPER WRITTEN BY A LIAR AND ISLAMONAZI PROPAGANDIST WHERE HE ALTERS THE WORDS OF TREATIES AND INTERNATIONAL LAWS TO SHOW THAT THE LAND WAS A PALESTINIAN STATE BEFORE IT WAS THE JEWISH NATIONAL HOME. IN OTHER WORD YOU HAVE NOTHING AT ALL OTHER THAN YOUR JEW HATRED AND YOUR DENIAL OF JEWISH RIGHTS

You didn't read the 1949 UN armistice agreements.

Yes I did and they say mandate of palestine borders. Then state that this is to be known as palestine. Also they do not have any signatures from the nation of palestine, showing that one did not exist, but did have them from Egypt, Jordan, Syria, Lebanon and Israel


You did not read the many international laws that

Yes I did and they say mandate of palestine borders.​

Do you have a link for that?

UN armistice agreements

The Mandate had already left Palestine and was not mentioned in the armistice agreements.

 

[RoccoR]

P F Tinmore, et al,

The Armistice Agreements do not exist alone.

You need to read the 1949 UN armistice agreements.

You didn't read the 1949 UN armistice agreements.

(COMMENT)

Nothing in the Armistice Agreements prohibit the establishment of sovereign territory. What the Armistice Agreement says is that the UN arranged cease-fire does not IMPOSE on any party a border arrangement. The Green Line (as an example) was not a UN imposed border by the Truce Commission. This is not a unique concept, but has been around for hundreds of years. The contemporary interpretation of an Armistice Line is:

2625 (XXV). Declaration on Principles of International Law concerning Friendly Relations and Co-operation among States in accordance with the Charter of the United Nations

Every State likewise has the duty to refrain from the threat or use of force to violate international lines of demarcation, such as armistice lines, established by or pursuant to an international agreement to which it is a party or which it is otherwise bound to respect. Nothing in the foregoing shall be construed as prejudicing the positions of the parties concerned with regard to the status and effects of such lines under their special regimes or as affecting their temporary character.
​

The most famous of these Armistice Agreements (of that same period) is (of course) the Korean War Armistice of 1953, when the UN, China and Korean agreed to a complete cessation of hostilities. South Korea does not have a true border with North Korea; BUT, an Armistice Line. YET, South Korea extends it sovereignty up to the DMZ and the Northern Limit Line.

No one argues that the various agreed upon Armistices represented borders. But they are/were "international lines of demarcation." And universally, iit is internationally recognized that nothing prohibits the establishment of sovereignty. If that were not the case, then there would be no Gaza Strip or West Bank; but all would be Israel under the treaty with Egypt and Jordan (respectfully).

Most Respectfully,
R

 

[P F Tinmore]

P F Tinmore, et al,

Yes, yes, yes! You cry this quite often.

P F Tinmore, Shusha, et al,

You still do not get it... If I've explained it once, I bet I said it a thousand times.

I have read all of those. None of them gave any land to Israel. Israel occupies Palestine.

Let's assume you are right. (You're not, but let's just pretend).

Why can't the Jewish people, as the nation of Israel, secede from Greater Palestine?

(COMMENT)

The reason that P F Tinmore cannot find any document that "gave any land to Israel" is because --- quite frankly --- in this case the the sovereignty and independence (1948) was acquired by declaration; not a sale, purchase, or real estate deal.

•• Declarative Theory under Westphalia Terms.
•• Declarative theory of statehood defines a state as a person in international law.
•• Political Theory in the Declaration of Independence.
​

The reason why Israel cannot secede from Palestine is because at the termination of the Mandate, the Successor Government was the UN Palestine Commission. The in conjunction with the UNPC, completion -- to the extent possible and not interfered with by the Arab League --- the UN adopted Steps Preparatory to Independence. The independence was announced and acknowledged. Recognition by the Arab Palestinians is not required. The Arab League and Arab Higher Committee rejected all offered attempts at the inclusion of the Arab Palestinians in the self-governing processes.

The Jewish State of Israel exercised the right of self-determination. It established sovereignty, and defended that sovereignty by Arab League Intruders in contravention with Chapter I of the Charter.

• All Peoples (including Israel) have the Right of Determination...
• All Peoples (including Israel) have the Right to be free of Arab League and Arab Palestine aggression.

Most Respectfully,
R

The reason that P F Tinmore cannot find any document that "gave any land to Israel" is because --- quite frankly --- in this case the the sovereignty and independence (1948) was acquired by declaration; not a sale, purchase, or real estate deal.​

--------------------------------

By contrast, the declarative theory of statehood defines a state as a person in international law if it meets the following criteria: 1) a defined territory; 2) a permanent population; 3) a government and 4) a capacity to enter into relations with other states. According to declarative theory, an entity's statehood is independent of its recognition by other states. The declarative model was most famously expressed in the 1933 Montevideo Convention.[25]

Article 3 of the Montevideo Convention declares that political statehood is independent of recognition by other states, and the state is not prohibited from defending itself.​

There are several problems with the creation of Israel. The most glaring is that Israel has never had a defined territory. It has no land or borders. Israel occupies Palestine as the foundation of its settler colonialism.

The Palestinians have never surrendered, ceded land, or recognized Israel.

The government of Israel was created in the direct opposition of the vast majority of the people.

Thomas Jefferson also used Rousseau’s social contract theory to justify his assertion of independence. Jefferson stated, “Governments are instituted… deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed” (Declaration of Independence). The idea of consent stems from Rousseau’s On the Social Contract. He stated that this contract was a “reciprocal commitment” (Rousseau 433) between people in a society and the government they create. He believed a “social compact” (Rousseau 432) was needed to form a government in which people gave consent to the government being formed.​

Note: from your links.

(COMMENT)

Whether or not the standard meets with the Tinmore Qualifications for a defined territory and a government is irrelevant. Totally irrelevant! BUT --- To YOUR Objections:

ANSWERS:

•• The territory, by the Israelis, was defined (originally and by agreement with the UNPC - the Successor Government to the Mandatory) to Annex "A" and Part II Boundaries, Section B - The Jewish State, UN Resolution 181(II). However, with the improper intervention and acts of aggression by the Arab League, Israeli sovereign control was extended beyond to the Forward Edge of the Battle Area (FEBA) as a result of combat failures by the Arab League.

** The Jewish People had formed the Provisional State Council/Government at the time of the Declaration of Independence. The immediate attacks and invasions by the Arab League Forces prevented the agreed upon "elections" as required by Paragraph 9, Part I, Section B - Steps Preparatory to Independence. In the lull of the conflict (1948 War of Independence), the Provisional Government held elections on the 25 January 1949; allowing a formal government to establish sovereignty out to the FEBA. During the first half of 1949, an Armistice was signed on behalf of the Government of Israel (GOI); which fully demonstrated a recognition of the Government of Israel.

** The Rousseau Model of "Democratic" Government adopted by Thomas Jefferson is not the only interpretation on the methodologies in establishing a "Democratic Government." The current Israeli Basic Law of 2001 comes very close to the Rousseau Model (as did the Basic Law that was replaced in 1968).

•• Article 3, of the Montevideo Convention (1933) applies equally well to Israelis as it does to the Arab Palestinians. In fact, it is probably more so since the Arab side rejected participation in self-governing programs offered by the legitimate Government of Palestine (GOP) prior to the termination of the Mandate; and continued to renounce the Artice 22 critieria of the Covenant by not cooperating with the UNPC successor government (tutelage of such peoples should be entrusted to advanced nations). The Recontition of Israel was independent of the Hostile Arab League Aggressor Armed Force; or that of the former NAZI Lead Palestinian Irregular Forces. AND, it does not prohibit the Israeli Government from defending itself from the invasion by the Arab League Forces.

Remember: While Hilary Clinton won the popular vote, she lost the election in terms of the Electoral College. That is because America is not a true Democracy; but a Republic and a representative form of government. In a Democracy, the popular vote would have prevailed.​

Just because you don't agree with any given outcome, does not make the outcome wrong.

The continuation of the conflict between the Arab Palestinian People only goes to demonstrate just how generous (but wrong) the Mandatory had been in promoting the Arab Palestinians as being able to stand alone. In more that half a century, no Arab Palestinian has demonstrated to be a progressive and beneficial government to the Arab Palestinian people, any regional initiative, or the cause of peace in a stable and secure region.

Most Respectfully,
R

Holy smokescreen, Batman!

Now how about addressing my post?

 

[RoccoR]

P F Tinmore, et al,

Again, it does not matter.

The Mandate had already left Palestine and was not mentioned in the armistice agreements.

(COMMENT)

No matter what argument you present to obfuscate the issue, it is extremely unlikely that the lines of Israeli sovereignty will be overturned by force.

Now how about addressing my post?

(COMMENT)

I answered every point:

• You challenged (twice) the "a defined territory;" ------- LOOK at the first entry under answers.
• You challenged "a government;" ---------- LOOK at the second entry under answers.
• You addressed (twice) "Article 3 of the Montevideo Convention;" -------- LOOK at the fourth entry under answers.
• You challenge the validity of the establishment of the Provisional Government and the organization of the democratic process; ---- LOOK at entry three and four under answers.
​

Yes, whether you recognize it or not, your Posting was answered in very definite detail.

Most Respectfully,
R

 

[Roudy]

Yawn, Monte is back to his old antisemtic propaganda and discrediting what the state of Israel has achieved in such a short period of time. What else is new.

Really Roudy using my term YAWN is a bit much..steve

Wait, you think you're the first guy on social media who used the term "yawn"?! Ha ha ha. Get some help dude.