P F Tinmore, Shusha, et al,
You still do not get it... If I've explained it once, I bet I said it a thousand times.
I have read all of those. None of them gave any land to Israel. Israel occupies Palestine.
Let's assume you are right. (You're not, but let's just pretend).
Why can't the Jewish people, as the nation of Israel, secede from Greater Palestine?
(COMMENT)
The reason that P F Tinmore cannot find any document that "
gave any land to Israel" is because --- quite frankly --- in this case the the sovereignty and independence (1948) was acquired by declaration; not a sale, purchase, or real estate deal.
The reason why Israel cannot secede from Palestine is because at the termination of the Mandate, the Successor Government was the UN Palestine Commission. The in conjunction with the UNPC, completion -- to the extent possible and not interfered with by the Arab League --- the UN adopted Steps Preparatory to Independence. The independence was announced and acknowledged. Recognition by the Arab Palestinians is not required. The Arab League and Arab Higher Committee rejected all offered attempts at the inclusion of the Arab Palestinians in the self-governing processes.
The Jewish State of Israel exercised the right of self-determination. It established sovereignty, and defended that sovereignty by Arab League Intruders in contravention with Chapter I of the Charter.
• All Peoples (including Israel) have the Right of Determination...
• All Peoples (including Israel) have the Right to be free of Arab League and Arab Palestine aggression.
Most Respectfully,
R