Alang,
I spent a lot of time to researching this (without much luck) and then a simple solution hit me.
In Luke, Joseph and Mary lived in Nazareth, but Jesus was not yet born.
Jesus was born in Bethlehem, but his parents immediately took him to Egypt to avoid Herod's decree.
After the threat of Herod's decree subsided the family moved back to Nazareth (which makes sense), but this was the first instance where Jesus lived in Nazareth (thus fulfilling the prophecy, as it was Jesus being a Nazarene, of which it was prophesied).
I see no contradiction here.
You argue that the census ( I assume you are referring to census of Quirinius) was a "crude attempt" to satisfy the prophecy. Have you considered that Jesus' birth actually occurred as written and did fulfill the prophecy?
The problem is we don't know. The Romans had multiple censuses. According to one source I read there are surviving records of only 40 census taken from 508 BCE and 14CE, with many gaps. There are no records of later censuses even though it is known they occurred. In addition Roman censuses only counted Roman citizens, which suggests that censuses of Jews, while ordered by the Romans, would have been conducted (and documented) by the Jewish tax collectors they employed.
The Romans used the census to set rates of taxation and also determine who was eligible for the army. Given regional differences, the Romans might have wanted to know where you were originally from (and to whom you owed familial loyalty), not just where you were living. It's possible the Jews just followed the Roman's method (as they would have had the same questions regarding familial loyalty).
William Shakespeare was a famous person who lived in England in the late 1500's and early 1600's and there are so few records of his life that some Shakespearean scholars have questioned his existence to argue that the name of is a nom de plume for some other famous, better educated person who actually authored his works. If historical scholars can't agree on the accuracy records related to a famous historical figure in the 1600's, I don't think I'm being ridiculous to question the historical accuracy or records related to Joseph and Mary (who were nobodies) over 2000 years ago.
I'm not saying you don't have reason to be skeptical of Luke's account, but it does not appear that the accuracy or inaccuracy of this scripture can be proven, as it relates to this issue.
That's what you've been told, but that is not historically accurate=contradicts the historical events used for forming the fake (good) news.
Fact: Nazareth did not yet exist as found by Roman letters given to soldiers to build the town in 90ad, the NT says Capernaum was his home town. Capernaum sources hometown liken to Soddom:
Matthew 4:13
Matthew 11:23
Matthew 17:24
Mark 1:21,2:1
THE CHRIST FIGURE who fled towards Egypt Yeshu son of Mary was in 100bc time of Jannaeus not Herod. He fled the persecution during the Jannaeus revolt. The Herod killing babies story never happened, it was used to demonize the King (and later to Demonize Jews)and this fleeing towards Egypt story give the Galilean Herod era christ of 6bc the story of Yeshu of 100bc.
These 2 christs are not the same christ as the River Jordan christ who existed in the Pilate era and died in 45ad. Thus the census story 7bc is of the Galilean era but since Herod died in 4bc they missed their moving Jesus birth back to 6bc creating another contradiction and as my first post you ignored stated, with Lysanias dying in 35bc he couldn't be in the Jesus era but could be in Yehuda the Herod era Galilean christ's accounts.=more contradictions you ignored.
Then there is you mistaken comment about being born in Bethlehem. Matthew tries to fulfill Micah 5:10 but Micah 5 is about the Bethlehem Ephratah lineage a person not Bethlehem a town, thus saying out of a clan (lineage). A compiled character needs a new birthtown, so in trying to make Jesus out of OT scripture that they didn't understand, they created many many contradictions that occur from not understanding Hebrew and meaning of words. Here we see Bethlehem is one of those mistakes, just notice it says
Bethlehem (son or grandson of )Epratah
not Bethlehem alone. They always take it out of context to deceive.
Source: Bethlehem Ephrathah = the tense in the Hebrew is MASCULINE GENDER and birthplaces are feminine gender therefore it's not a birth place its a birth lineage one comes out of. Bethlehem the son
(or grandson) of Ephrathah (1 Chronicles 4:4, 2:50-51).
Micah 5:2 reads: "But as for you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, too little to be among "the clans" of Judah (showing a lineage not a city ).
Alang,
I spent a lot of time to researching this (without much luck) and then a simple solution hit me.
In Luke, Joseph and Mary lived in Nazareth, but Jesus was not yet born.
Jesus was born in Bethlehem, but his parents immediately took him to Egypt to avoid Herod's decree.
After the threat of Herod's decree subsided the family moved back to Nazareth (which makes sense), but this was the first instance where Jesus lived in Nazareth (thus fulfilling the prophecy, as it was Jesus being a Nazarene, of which it was prophesied).
I see no contradiction here.
You argue that the census ( I assume you are referring to census of Quirinius) was a "crude attempt" to satisfy the prophecy. Have you considered that Jesus' birth actually occurred as written and did fulfill the prophecy?
The problem is we don't know. The Romans had multiple censuses. According to one source I read there are surviving records of only 40 census taken from 508 BCE and 14CE, with many gaps. There are no records of later censuses even though it is known they occurred. In addition Roman censuses only counted Roman citizens, which suggests that censuses of Jews, while ordered by the Romans, would have been conducted (and documented) by the Jewish tax collectors they employed.
The Romans used the census to set rates of taxation and also determine who was eligible for the army. Given regional differences, the Romans might have wanted to know where you were originally from (and to whom you owed familial loyalty), not just where you were living. It's possible the Jews just followed the Roman's method (as they would have had the same questions regarding familial loyalty).
William Shakespeare was a famous person who lived in England in the late 1500's and early 1600's and there are so few records of his life that some Shakespearean scholars have questioned his existence to argue that the name of is a nom de plume for some other famous, better educated person who actually authored his works. If historical scholars can't agree on the accuracy records related to a famous historical figure in the 1600's, I don't think I'm being ridiculous to question the historical accuracy or records related to Joseph and Mary (who were nobodies) over 2000 years ago.
I'm not saying you don't have reason to be skeptical of Luke's account, but it does not appear that the accuracy or inaccuracy of this scripture can be proven, as it relates to this issue.
That's what you've been told, but that is not historically accurate=contradicts the historical events used for forming the fake (good) news.
Fact: Nazareth did not yet exist as found by Roman letters given to soldiers to build the town in 90ad, the NT says Capernaum was his home town. Capernaum sources hometown liken to Soddom:
Matthew 4:13
Matthew 11:23
Matthew 17:24
Mark 1:21,2:1
THE CHRIST FIGURE who fled towards Egypt Yeshu son of Mary was in 100bc time of Jannaeus not Herod. He fled the persecution during the Jannaeus revolt. The Herod killing babies story never happened, it was used to demonize the King (and later to Demonize Jews)and this fleeing towards Egypt story give the Galilean Herod era christ of 6bc the story of Yeshu of 100bc.
These 2 christs are not the same christ as the River Jordan christ who existed in the Pilate era and died in 45ad. Thus the census story 7bc is of the Galilean era but since Herod died in 4bc they missed their moving Jesus birth back to 6bc creating another contradiction and as my first post you ignored stated, with Lysanias dying in 35bc he couldn't be in the Jesus era but could be in Yehuda the Herod era Galilean christ's accounts.=more contradictions you ignored.
Then there is you mistaken comment about being born in Bethlehem. Matthew tries to fulfill Micah 5:10 but Micah 5 is about the Bethlehem Ephratah lineage a person not Bethlehem a town, thus saying out of a clan (lineage). A compiled character needs a new birthtown, so in trying to make Jesus out of OT scripture that they didn't understand, they created many many contradictions that occur from not understanding Hebrew and meaning of words. Here we see Bethlehem is one of those mistakes, just notice it says
Bethlehem (son or grandson of )Epratah
not Bethlehem alone. They always take it out of context to deceive.
Source: Bethlehem Ephrathah = the tense in the Hebrew is MASCULINE GENDER and birthplaces are feminine gender therefore it's not a birth place its a birth lineage one comes out of. Bethlehem the son
(or grandson) of Ephrathah (1 Chronicles 4:4, 2:50-51).
Micah 5:2 reads: "But as for you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, too little to be among "the clans" of Judah (showing a lineage not a city ).
I love how HaShev states his opinions as facts. Let's look into this further.
I would ask to see the source material for these Roman letters (citing my earlier objection to the accuracy of ancient documents), but I don't have to.
In February last year I was driving into Jerusalem from the West Bank when I passed Beduoin encampments along the road. Do you think the current State of Israel considers these encampments "cities". My point is this, different cultures have different definitions of what constitutes a city.
I'm not conceding that such Roman letter exists or that there is enough supporting documentation around it to support the inference that HaShev is staying as fact.
However, since the Romans were so big into infrastructure, it's possible that a Jewish encampment (city) did not meet their definition of CITY.
According to Mathew 4:13, Jesus lived in Capernum as an adult. He lived in Nazareth as a boy.
I could chalk that up to misunderstanding, but you have to wonder about the motives of someone who then erroneously tries to connect Jesus (through Capernum) to Sodom. Having been to Israel several times I can confirm that it commonly believed that Capernum and Sodom are not in the same place.
Now if reputation not location was HaShev's point (ie. The inhabitants of Capernum were as bad as the former occupants of Sodom, then where else should the future savior hang out and spread his message of redemption from sin. Like the Pharisees before him HaShed doesn't understand Jesus' core message that you are made unclean through your own sinful actions (commission) not by hanging out with sinful people (inputation).
due to the research involved I haven't gotten to HaShev's first post, but if this follow up post is filled with as much sloppy scholarship as that post then I would think it would reasonable to look at it with skepticism until HaShed can prove his assertions, rather than taking what He says as "Gospel" truth. Rest assured I will get to it.
HaShev tries to make the point that Micah 5:2 references a different city, which he states as fact. My question is whether all Rabbis agree with this interpretation? I'll save you the suspense the answer is no.
Why is this important? To answer that you have to understand why this argument is some important to the Jews. You see the Jews believe that Jesus wasn't the messiah - the true messiah hasn't come yet. If Jesus actually fulfills the prophecies than they were wrong and the missed the messiah.
HaShev tries to make the point that the name in Micah references a tribe not a place - the sub tribe of the Ephrathites. Ironically 1st Samuel 17:12 tells us that Jesse the father of David (who was in Jesus' lineage) was an Ephrathite.
I find the argument that the gospel writers didn't understand Hebrew particularly interesting. You see all of the gospel writers (save possibly Luke) were Jewish. HaShev knows this, so his argument is not that the gospel writers didn't understand Hebrew. Deferring to the Jewish tradition of the caste system of religious scholarship, he's arguing that simple tradesmen were too ignorant and unlearned to write the gospels.
Putting aside for a moment the biblical flaw in that premise (see what the book of Proverbs has to say about leaning too much on human scholarship or understanding), I actually agree with HaShev. I don't believe Matthew, Mark, Luke and John composed the Gospels. I believe God composed them and handed them down through the fellows mentioned above through the Holy Spirit.
I do find the femine/masculine name argument interesting, but I don't find it being made anywhere else in the internet even on Jewish sites. Given his track record of playing fast and loose with the truth, I'm going to have to feign to be a Missourian here and ask HaShev to show me where he got that info.