Of course there were many "indigenous" people in the area. They were mostly nomads with no roots. One season they would be in Jordan, next season in Palestine, then Syria, Egypt or Lebanon. They had no claim to anything. But when Israel started making the land liveable and prosperous, then...............Whoa, Nelly! Bar the door!
The Beduoins were one group and yes, they were nomadic. However there were also many established Arab villages in those areas. I'm not talking about what is Israel proper within it's originally established borders - I'm talking about the Occupied Territories and the settlers.
But all that raises yet another question, and it's very much why the settler movement reminds me of the American westward expansion and the primacy of the Divine Mandate that gave them moral authority to force out indiginous peoples. Simply because they lived largely in subsistance or small scale trade economies or were nomadic - they had no right to the territories over which they moved.
So why is it that one group (stationary) has greater rights over another group (nomadic over set routes)?
Why is it that some how rights to a land is governed by how much a group "improves it" over who has lived there?
Why is it that Arab villages, who lacked the huge monetary donations and resources that the Israeli's recieved over time to develop their country and agriculture - suddenly don't have the same rights to their land as "settlers" who come in and take it? Somehow if they don't "improve it" they have less rights? Why do they even HAVE to improve it?
What if you have a hundred acres of empty field and forest, you only tend a few acres to feed your family - then some guy comes in, develops fifty acres into an agricultural paradise and claims it is now his so bugger off. You refuse and he starts vandalizing your fruit trees, burning your trucks, terrorizing your children and, this is ok because he "improved the land" so he has a greater right to it?