The Cyclic universe theory doesn't require an exact repeat. Merely a repeating cycle. So the specific details within each cycle can be quite different.
And we witness in the universe all the time. Cycles with variation. Go to the beach and watch the waves if you'd like a simple example.
But we know the waves on the beach are not of infinite duration, which was my original point.
Not in the post I replied to. Your argument was that cyclical universal was determined. Which it isn't, as the 'cycle with variation' model demonstrates.
Nor does a cyclical universe require infinity. The most current version of the cyclical model I'm aware of is M-theories 'colliding 'brane'' theory. Where a pair of 2 dimensional branes are periodically drawn toward each other gravitationally and collide. With the cycle being in the tens of trillions of years.
The collisions produce a big bang and pushes the branes apart again. With the 2 dimensional model (also known as the hologram model) being based on a bizarre and currently unexplained issue regarding the maximum entropy of black holes. Hawking and others established (how I have no idea) that the maximum entropy of a black hole is equal to its SURFACE area. Not its volume.
Which powerfully supports the idea of 2 dimensional projection onto 3 dimensional space. Which leads to the idea of our universe being a 2 or possibly 3 brane.
Personally, I think its a factor of all entropy occurring at the event horizon of a black hole and then progressing no further due to relativistic effects on time. The Russians call black holes 'frozen stars', as everything beyond the event horizon is locked in the same moment. With the event horizon being expressed in surface area terms rather than volume.
But what the **** do I know? I'm a physics dabbler at best. And my answer seems too obvious to have been overlooked by the professionals.
Regardless, it doesn't require an infinity of collisions. Merely a repeatable cycle of them. Anywhere from a few dozen to a few trillion would satisfy cyclic theory. And only one such collision would meet the conditions of our universe.
Worse, your running headlong into the same problem you had before. You condemn infinity....but rely on infinity. Where you reject a theory because you believe it defies our observations of physics. While your entire alternative explanation violates all the same rules. Either the violation of these rules invalidates a theory.....or it doesn't. You can't ignore your own standards. Yet you do.
We know they started and that one day they will end. An eternally repeating cycle that returns to the exact same state eventually over time in exactly the same way is necessary or the possibility is introduced of a catastrophic variation that would end the universe. Given an infinite amount of time it will happen, so the cycles MUST be exactly the same.
The cycles don't need to be eternal. And they don't need to be the same. Even using the 'infinite model', a cycle would eventually repeat exactly. But there would be trillions upon trillions of different versions between such exact 'manifestations'. And trillions upon trillions more before before such a duplicate happened again.
Meaning that the there would be a trillion to the trillionth power's different versions at the very, very least. Not just one. That's not 'deterministic'...anymore than rolling a die a few dozen times and getting the same number of pips more than once is 'deterministic'.
All of which is moot....as infinite cycles aren't necessary.
Well, there are a lot of problems with MWT, starting with what exactly a split or divide is and how it happens and how are we parallel in the first place? If our universes are so 'connected' in some weird way that we split into separate universes, are both these entirely new universes? Is one the original and the other new? Did both exist prior to the split and the divided universes became cohered in some fashion then almost immediately decohered?
There are all sorts of multiverse theories. You're referring to one of them. And the question would be...how much energy is in the multiverse? Your assumptions mandate that the energy in the observable universe is the energy in the multiverse. And by 'splitting', the quantum twin of the observable universe is pulling energy from nothing and doubling the total amount of energy.
But if the multiverse has far more energy than the observable universe then your conservation of energy problem is solved. As the energy for alternates isn't 'created'. It already exists. With the multiverse containing FAR, far more energy than exists in the observable universe.
And of course, your theory violates the conservation of energy principle as you propose it. As god 'makes' matter and energy appear. From apparently nothing. As 'formless and empty' strongly implies. So by your own standards, your theory doesn't work. You're ignoring your own standards again.
Why doesn't gravitational effects apply between cohered universes? Is there a change in location? What of Relativity effects, like entangled atomic particles at a time of decoherence? Is it possible that the entangled pairs are arbitrarily separated or is there just no difference at all?
Depends on how they interact with each other. What's the physical proximity of one version of the multiverse with another? Given that gravity travels at the speed of light, the distance between them may be larger than the projected total age of the universe. Making such interactions impossible. Multiverse theory in every variety either hypothesizes great distance between them or doesn't posit their bases of interaction. Meaning that you have your answer with distance....or multiverse doesn't posit a method of interaction to conflict with your questions.
It is so ambiguous in the details of what this decoherence/splitting event is and what a parallel universe that is cohered then decohered actually means that it really doesn't seem like a scientific theory but more of a prop for comic books and low brow sci fi.
You've got it backward. The theories themselves are based on observation. With quantum physics being the most observationally verified theory in science. I believe its accurate to something like 7 decimal places. Feynmann Diagrams are a hell of a thing.
The sci-fi version of them (Sliders, anyone?) is an oversimplified entertainment version of the very complex scientific theories. You're quoting the sci-fi versions and then condemning them for being oversimplifed. And you're right. They are. But they sci-fi version you're quoting isn't the scientific theory. Or anything really close to it.
Without time...according to who? Remember, your offering us a series of nested assumptions. None of which are confirmed through observation.
Well, yes, it is not an observed behavior, but I think that this is where theology and philosophy can fill in some with rational speculation.
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All of which is contradicted by your own standards. Logically, your standards would apply to you too. But to hold scientific theories to a strict 'observation' standard. And then to ignore observation with your own is wildly inconsistent.
Not everything outside the limits of science is irrational, or magical or merely whim. Mathematics is very real, even though it is not a natural phenomenon, it is useful to help us model natural systems. Mathematics is a good case of rational speculation that has proven useful in the real world very often and is now considered indispensable.
But without observation and mathematics, is exceedingly difficult to differentiate the irrational from the rational. Which is what makes your process so unreliable. As there's little to nothing to support your particular variant beyond speculation.
But yes, it is not through solely scientific and observable processes a known entity. MY faith though tells me it is known and I believe it.
With faith being entirely subjective. It exists in you. And is observationally identical to imagination. There may be some qualitative difference between faith and imagination. But there's no way to tell which is which from the outside.
Worse, 'faith' produces wildly different results between people, between religions and between eras within the same religion. With 'faith' producing everything from soup kitchens to holy wars to cannablism to ancestor worship. Depending on who is 'faithing' and when.
With 'faith' almost always powerfully influenced by the cultural standards of those who claim to have it. Leaning heavily on the 'imagination' angle. For example, the Puritans, the Founders and Modern Christians.
The Puritans killed adulterers and gays.
The Founders didn't kill adulterers but did kill gays.
Modern Christians kill neither.
Did god change his mind? Or did the relativistic cultural values change the way that the faith was subjectively interpreted? I'd say the evidence overwhelmingly supports the latter. And that's the same general faith, using the same holy book, same general cultural traditions, the same geography...separated only by time. When you move between peoples, religions and tomes.....the differences become ludicrously dramatic.
Worse, most 'faith' is mutually exclusive. It can't be both Jesus and a Greek Pantheon of Gods, for example. Its either one or the other.
Which means that if anyone got faith right, all others got it wrong. Which means that almost all of the faithful are self deluded into believing in fallacies, with only a lucky few blessed with correct belief.
Which means that faith almost always produces fallacious results.
And that's a best case scenario. Its entirely possible that no one got it right. Or that no one is able to. Or that there's nothing to get.
Which is why faith is such a poor standard of objective understanding. As a process it is almost always wrong.
They are not necessary qualities at all, but then those remain for OTHER philosophical lines of thought that I think work toward a sentient entity that exists outside the flow of time and began it.
Such as? By far the strongest theological argument that exists is the first mover argument. Its their crown jewel. And it neither affirms nor requires *any* of attributes that theology generally applies to God. Strictly speaking, a 'first mover' doesn't even need to exist after moving first. Or be sentient. Or good. Or be capable of awareness or intelligence. Or have any power beyond moving first.
All of which your belief system requires.
Given that the philosophical basis for these additional attributes is far, far more tenuous, poorly reasoned and sustainable than the 'first mover argument', it doesn't bode well for those attributes.