Kevin_Kennedy
Defend Liberty
- Aug 27, 2008
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Again, your playing what ifs and I'm playing with your own applied solution.
You want to leave abortion up to the states.
Well guess what? For the time, the woman right to vote and Slavery would of been up to the states.
And I wonder how many states would have neither today?
And even today slavery goes on in certain ways. Example: Caste System in India. Where is the "outrage" from outside India?
India's "Untouchables" Face Violence, Discrimination
No, I believe you've got it backwards. Anyone who takes the time to look at the Declaration of Independence and the Constitution can clearly come to the conclusion that slavery was illegal from the very start. The confusion comes because the founders themselves went against these laws, so people believe that slavery was legal.
"We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defense, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America." - Preamble of the U.S. Constitution
My argument is that this applied to black people just as much as it applied to white people.
"We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these are Life, Liberty and the pursuit of Happiness." - U.S. Declaration of Independence
Again, applies to black people as much as it does white people.
Therefore, under the Constitution the issue of slavery would not be left to the states because of the nature of the Constitution itself is to protect the liberties of the people. Abortion on the other hand, is not mentioned in the Constitution at all. Therefore, it is left to the states.