Question about WW2..

BrickHouse88

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I was reading on Google that Hitler invaded and conquered Holland in May 1940..

Ok, but I also read on Google that Japan invaded the Dutch East Indies after Pearl Harbor, December 7th, 1941 though to obtain thee oil fields in the Dutch East Indies..

My question is, why would Japan need to attack thee Dutch East Indies in 1941-1942 if Hitler had already conquered Holland in 1940..?

Wouldn’t thee Dutch East Indies have fallen if Holland had fallen to the Nazi’s a year or so prior?
 

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....., why would Japan need to attack thee Dutch East Indies in 1941-1942 if Hitler had already conquered Holland in 1940..?

Wouldn’t thee Dutch East Indies have fallen if Holland had fallen to the Nazi’s a year or so prior?
Why would that be so? I am sure there were free Dutch just as there had been free French.
 
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Why did Hitler stop the successful invasion of France just before Dunkerk …. For so long as it took to let the English escape?
 
Holland is a region of the Netherlands so it's like calling America, Florida.
 
Next question


Why did Hitler stop the successful invasion of France just before Dunkerk …. For so long as it took to let the English escape?
Because he wanted peace with the UK. He tried repeatedly after Dunkirk to obtain a peace agreement with the UK. The warmongering drunken fool Churchill said fuck off.
 
The Soviets helped the Nazis train their airforce and their army.

The Soviet Union and the nazis conspired against Poland.
 

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