No. THAT is NOT "the" definition of "torture." It is, however,
A definition of torture. It is not one which serves a truly useful purpose for present purposes, imho. I will explain that later.
I commend you for at least finally answering the direct question. We shall return to that matter after a while.
As to your (again!) rather straightforward response to my second question, I again commend you. Yes, I DO disagree with your position, but at least you GAVE a straightforward answer. ALthough I cannot go into much detail right now, I will preview my position for you. I believe that you are wrong. The alleged "reasonableness" of that defintion of "torture" in THIS context is beyond just dubious. My contention is that it is in fact NOT a reasonable defintional basis for purposes of this discussion.
I have to go, now. I may check in sometime later tonight.
I will pick up our discussion from here. As a matter of courtesy, I will address both of your answers to both of those questions as my next step in this discussion [bearing in mind that history offers many examples of negotiating things like the shape of the table that precede any actual negotiations].
I will address some of your other comments in due course, like your erroneous contention about what I believe regarding the utility of torture. For future reference, you are
not actually permitted to state my position for me, especuially when you do so incorrectly. I throw that flag, now, for future reference.