It appears I am going to have to get into a little more detail about why the methodology between A polls, RV polls, and LV polls is so important and why it creates the
illusion of bias and so much liberal bellyaching.
Again. A polls are polls of "adults". Anyone 18 or older. But because only 50%-55% of the eligible population actually votes, these polls give you a good idea of what the public thinks, but
it doesn't tell you very much about who is going to win an election. The majority of the public is Democrat so polls of A tend to show a far better performance by liberal candidates.
RV polls are polls of "registered voters". Gallup uses the RV method as as a result Democrats tend to perform better in comparison to other polls.
Since RV is the most common method, Democrats will tend to perform better in most polls. BUT only about 70% of registered voter actually vote. Sometimes it can be as low as 50%. It just depends on what is going on in the world. So you get a better idea of who is likely to win the election than using A polls but it's still iffy. So some pollsters use LV instead.
LV polls mean "likely voters". This is the most accurate measure of "who is likely to win an election", not "what do the people think" because it only considers those who through a formula are determined the be an active voter in the coming election.
The likelihood that someone will vote is based on a pretty basic calculation. Each polling agency will vary it a bit but it comes down to (P*B)+M > C; where P is the probability that an individual vote will change the outcome of an election, B is the tangible benefit someone stands to gain by their candidate winning, M is the non-material motivation factor and C is the cost in time, effort, and currency it takes to vote.
Now since P is basically zero then B is also basically zero and it comes down to whether M is greater than C. So, for example, if a person is not currently registered to vote their C value will be higher than a person who is currently registered to vote. Why? Because for the former it will take time and effort to register and that will raise the value of C over someone who has already registered. other things that weigh into C are things like how far the polling location is from their home, do they get time off work to vote, do they have a car, do they plan to be out of town on election day forcing the use of an absentee ballot, etc
M is determined by a lot of things; how important a critical issue is to you, whether you feel that voting is a "duty", whether you pay attention to politics in general, etc. It also considers your past voting history. How often have you voted in the last 4 elections for example.
So what they will do is after you have taken the poll, they ask you all these questions designed to calculate your personal M and C values. If M is greater than C they consider you a "likely voter" and your poll answers are considered. If M is less than C they consider you "unlikely to vote" and they ignore your responses.
Now because Republican candidates generally perform best in LV polls liberals like to argue that they are biased. No. Republicans perform better in those polls not because the poll is biased but because as it turns out
Republicans are more likely to vote than Democrats and historically by a
wide margin. This is precisely why large voter turnout tends to favor a Democratic candidate. While there are more Democrats in the nation, Republicans vote at a far higher percentage of their given population.
So are LV polls, like Rasmussen and SurveyUSA, "biased"? Well liberals cry that they are, but in reality if you consider an LV poll biased toward Republicans you must also consider an RV poll biased toward Democrats. It's also worth noting that according to the 2008 election results, our liberal friend Nate Silver (who the liberals love to cite), was forced to concede that out of the top three most accurate agencies, SurveyUSA and Rasmussen (both LV pollsters) were
#2 and #3 respectively. So is it that LV polls are biased or simply more accurate? The data suggests the latter. Is it that RV polls are biased or simply less accurate? The data suggests that the former may be the reason for the latter.
This is also why when it comes to things like approval rating and voter identification, Rasmussen's numbers will show more favorable data in both categories for Republicans than Gallup's will. Rasmussen's data is based on LV while Gallup's is based on RV.
Now does this
finally clear it all up for everyone?