Kruska
Diamond Member
Nobody ever disputed this - you however choose to ignore those other 650,000 non-Jews, and also ignore that Jews in 1948 owned only 6,5% of the land.So there were Jews there, then.
And private landowner-ship doesn't define a state hood - Just because some Jew from Albania owns some acres in the USA - he owns or has rights towards the State of Colorado and the entire USA? - only a Zionist would claim that incomprehensible nonsense.
Read up history as to which government or Empire ruled over the entire Levant after the Romans till 1948.
Not a single Jewish state entity - till those invading European Jewish hordes came in and declared a State of Israel on the land of others - without ever having defined nor acknowledged by the UN any international borders.
As a matter of fact - when the Byzantines ruled the Levant - Jews factually had to leave the Levant - especially Jerusalem, Judea and Samaria. When the Umayyad Caliphate and Abbasid Caliphate took over the rule of former Byzantine at around 700 A.D. - "they" factually allowed for the return of Jews.
Grow up, read it up and check for yourself - after all you wrote just two posts before:How about before the Ottoman Empire, how many Jews were there and how long had they been there?
I think we've established that you make it all up as you go.