That is absolutely NOT TRUE. You have no understanding of this republic
The last sentence from him is correct.
In the state i live in, 2.1 million people vote for Trump and 209,000 voted for Johnson. Both voters had the same impact on the election, both groups of voters accounted for the exact same number of electrical votes...zero
In Texas 3.8 million people voted for Hillary and 283,000 voted for Johnson. Both voters had the same impact on the election, both groups of voters accounted for the exact same number of electrical votes...zero
This is an inherent weakness with the EC but more with the winner take all system that we have.
Keep in mind. The Electoral College was part of a system of the original 13 colonies.
Also keep in mind that women could not vote until 1921.
The EC does not fit in 2019, with 50 states, and 325 million people, in which the population centers that make up for 3/4 of the entire GDP of a $20 trillion economy.
No historical, or Constitutional argument can be made that continues to support the Electoral College. This is no longer an ideological debate.
Sure there is, your opinion just happens to be the wrong one. Don't like the system, amend the Constitution and good luck with that one. Until that time, the electoral college is here to stay be it 13 states or 57.
But is there anything in the constitution that a state cannot have its electors vote for whomever wins the popular vote?
I havent seen that. In fact I believe the Constitution says it's up to the state to choose their electors. And like with Maine and Nebraska they can choose how their electors vote.
You can't vote by disenfranchising everybody in the state.
In the last election, Ohio voted for Trump. Hillary got the popular vote. If this law were in place last election, that would have meant all our electoral votes would have went to Hillary in spite of Ohio voting for Trump. How can you think that's constitutional?
Article II Section 1, second paragraph, that's how. "
in such manner as the Legislature thereof may direct" leaves no qualifications or requirements.
AGAIN --- Ohio ---- or any state ---- can, if it so chooses, mix the letters in a Scrabble game and pick letters until they select a candidate. It can call a random name in the phone book and ask the party to pick one. It can cast its votes for Pete Rose. The Constitution doesn't care. It doesn't have to hold an election
at all.
And as far as your 'disenfranchisement', every Ohioan, in this or any other election, who voted for a candy other than the one that got the massive dump of unanimity, ALREADY got disenfranchised.
And guess what ---- that too was Constitutional. Fucked-up idea but Constitutional.
So much for the "Constitutional" argument eh?
Now if an elector votes against the states choice, that's an issue that can be addressed. But if there is a law that states electors must vote with the country instead of the people of that state, it would be violating the right to choose a representative of choice.
In many states (don't know whether Ohio is one) there are so-called "faithless elector" laws that already dick-tate how the Elector
must vote, which, by taking the power of discretion away from said Elector, stick a finger in the eye of the entire concept of the EC. What's the point of having Electors if their votes are going to be dick-tated? Would you participate in a state election where you were
required to vote for Candidate X? THERE is your anti-Constitutionality, isn't it.
So when you join me in calling out Faithless Elector laws as unConstitutional, we'll move on from that point.
It's like I posted earlier. This is as un-constitutinoal as passing a law that says no matter who wins an election, all EC votes must go to a Republican, even if we clearly voted for the Democrat candidate.
And as I told you at that time,
that too would be Constitutional.
Or to put it another way, wake up and smell the Constitutional.