It does not say the Right of the states to arm and equip a militia shall not be infringed....the Right of the People shall not be infringed....
It certainly
implies that it's talking about a militia. Why else would the phrase even exist there at all?
A militia is certainly not the only application in which Arms can be used. Why did they single this one out?
The actual people have the Right to keep and bear arms.....and serve in a militia...twit....
See? You pointed yourself right back to the militia application. That's exactly what I'm saying.
Now --- a Constitution has to be clear; it can't set forth what it sets forth by vague implication. And other than this particular Amendment --- it doesn't. It's specific, as it should be. Then there's this eternally murky area.