The GOP managed to fool their idiotic base that actual in-person voting fraud is “rampant”, but how does one justify them closing actual voting locations? Obviously it’s to keep minorities from voting at all regardless of what ID they have in their possession because the GOP are fascist pieces of shit. Obviously white republican voters are okay with it. All that matters is that they win I guess. Either that, or they just believe anything their GOP masters tell them. Both seem equally likely.
Texas closes hundreds of polling sites, making it harder for minorities to vote | US news | The Guardian
You people consistently demonstrate that you lack even a modicum of independent thought, objectivity or curiosity. I know it's difficult for you to read past the headline of an article before racing over here and posting that it's the harbinger of the Trumpocalypse, but if you had read all of those things called "sentences" that are made up of all those words below the headline, you'd notice the following details, which the authors hid where you'd never think to look - right in the text of the article.
As the article states, the majority of the polling location closures were the result of Texas counties changing to "centralized, countywide polling places, called 'vote centers',
which exist in almost a third of US states. Under countywide voting schemes, voters are no longer assigned to a polling place in their local precinct and can instead cast their ballot at any polling location in the county."
"Gee, I wonder what states those are?" is something a person with a normal working brain would ask. "Is there a law in Texas that governs this?" is another. And if one were to take those inquiries a step further by opening their handy internet browser and running a search, that person would learn that the states that have switched to "vote centers" includes none other than the leftist utopia of
California.
That fact in and of itself exposes this "voter suppression" narrative as pure political hackery, and you wouldn't be wrong for making that conclusion and ending your inquiry right there. But here's where genuine curiosity and objectivity come into play, as this conclusion can be objectively verified by digging a little more and lining up the vote center provisions in each state for comparison. California's vote center law (
Cal. Elec. Code § 4005) requires there to be 1 vote center for every 10,000
registered voters in the three days before the election through election day, whereas the vote center roll-out in Texas, providing for "one polling place per 7,700
residents," is being called "voter suppression" by this article.
As to the other inquiry, one would learn that the Texas statute authorizing the change to vote centers (
Tex. Election Code §43.007) was passed in 2009, and is done on a county by county basis which requires a litany of procedural steps, including public hearings, planning audits, approval by the county board of commissioners, and ratification of the county's participation plan by the secretary of state. In sum, the Texas counties that have changed to vote centers have been working on this for a decade; it was not some overnight operation conducted in secret.
This verifiable, objective evidence makes clear that the article is nothing more than a slam piece intended for consumption by impressionable lemmings who have no interest in questioning whether the headline is objectively accurate. You won't find an article that packages up the above information in an easy to read headline; it requires a few minutes of time, a little elbow grease, and the ability to form independent thoughts.