Israel's persecution of Christians

Christ returns to restore the entire earth. He doesn't necessarily need a particular landing pad. There will be a “new heaven and a new earth.” He also brings with Him a “New Jerusalem.” The current Jerusalem is a vile place run by Christ-hating Pharisees and Sadducees, religionists, atheists, and imposters.

2 Corinthians 6:14-18, “Be ye not unequally yoked together with unbelievers: for what fellowship hath righteousness with unrighteousness? and what communion hath light with darkness? And what concord hath Christ with Belial? or what part hath he that believeth with an infidel? And what agreement hath the temple of God with idols? for ye are the temple of the living God; as God hath said, I will dwell in them, and walk in them; and I will be their God, and they shall be my people. Wherefore come out from among them, and be ye separate, saith the Lord, and touch not the unclean thing; and I will receive you. And will be a Father unto you, and ye shall be my sons and daughters, saith the Lord Almighty.”

There is no such thing as “Judeo-Christianity.” Christianity is not hyphenated. It's either “Christianity” or it's nothing.
Christ does restore the entire earth. He does so from His specific location, Jerusalem. He has the landing pad already located. Right back where He left. Israel. Only this time he returns as The Lion of the Tribe of Judah. He is not returning as the Lion of the Tribe of the Vatican, or of the tribe of the Baptists, or the Lion of the tribe of Believers.
He does need that particular landing place to keep the promise God made to Abraham. Because all nations will go against Israel, and only Christ can stop us. The remnant of Jews that are left run to Him, on that mountain after it splits in half from Him landing at that specific location. They accept Christ this time around.

New Heaven, new earth, new Jerusalem come much later. New Jerusalem.

You seem to take issue with God's people. Why is that?
While antisemitism is rearing it's ugly head again, it is time to remember:
I will bless those who bless Israel and curse those who curse Israel.
 
You seem to take issue with God's people. Why is that?
While antisemitism is rearing it's ugly head again, it is time to remember:
I will bless those who bless Israel and curse those who curse Israel.
But "Israel" was never a country, with borders governed by elected individuals. Historically too, the Kingdom of Israel was at war with the Jews, so your interpretation of these scriptures is at best, fanciful.
 
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Jeremiah 30:3 For behold (hear this), the days are coming,' says the LORD, 'when I will restore the fortunes of My people Israel and Judah,' says the LORD, 'and I will return them to the land that I gave to their forefathers and they will take possession of it.

And He did. Done!
It is the only land God deeded to a people. And He means for them to keep it.
 
Jeremiah 30:3 For behold (hear this), the days are coming,' says the LORD, 'when I will restore the fortunes of My people Israel and Judah,' says the LORD, 'and I will return them to the land that I gave to their forefathers and they will take possession of it.

And He did. Done!
It is the only land God deeded to a people. And He means for them to keep it.
This is an interpretation of scripture, there are other ways to interpret these kinds of scriptures.

The text says "restore them to the land" (what land?) "I gave their ancestors to possess".

That does not say God will give it to the Jews to possess, it says restore them to the land that was in the past, previously possessed by their ancestors.

Today Israel is "the land of the Jews" only, it does not include "Israelites" the people of "Israel" (the other ten tribes) are not mentioned in Israel's basic laws, there is no provision for them, it is Jew specific, it excludes the other ten Israelite tribes.

Therefore the current occupation and domination by Zionists is not the fulfillment of that prophecy.
 
But "Israel" was never a country, with borders governed by elected individuals. Historically too, the Kingdom of Israel was at war with the Jews, so your interpretation of these scriptures is at best, fanciful.
Do countries only become countries if they have elected officials? Israel certainly had borders.

The kingdom of Israel wax split from the Kingdom of Judah. The term "Jew" as a religious marker didn't exist then.
 
Do countries only become countries if they have elected officials? Israel certainly had borders.
No, but modern Israel bears no resemblance to the ancient kingdom of Judah (which is what it should have been named). So how does one proof that the modern state of Israel is fulfillment of that prophecy? Look at the nations common laws, it emphasizes "Jew" and "Jewish people" it makes no mention of Israelites, so again why should we interpret todays state as being a fulfillment of that prophecy?
The kingdom of Israel wax split from the Kingdom of Judah. The term "Jew" as a religious marker didn't exist then.
But Jew means children of Judah (and also often includes children of Benjamin) all Jews are Israelites but not all Israelites are Jews.

Israel today is the land of the Jews - this is explicitly stated in the basic laws - non-Jew Israelites are not recognized, so again this does not seem to match the prophecy in Jeremiah.

Israel today is secular, persecutes its religious orthodox community and is governed by fanatical nationalists.
 
You are all over the place. This started questioning who God's chosen are. They are the ones God called, "my people.". You don't seem to care for the examples of exactly who the Bible says are God's people. They are the Jews.

Christ excoriated the Temple priests, not the Jewish people. The Jewish people are the ones that Christ wanted to take under His wing. He referred to the Gentiles as dogs. One Gentile woman's faith changed that and Gentiles were grafted into the Jewish line and the promises God to Abraham.

I have often used John 8:44 to show that we are not all God's children.

Hell IS a real place, though not for eternity. It is temporary. At the end of Christ's millennial reign, He calls up the nonbelivers in Hell to be judged at the White Throne Judgment. This is the result:

Rev. 20: 13-14 And the sea gave up the dead which were in it; and death and hell delivered up the dead which were in them: and they < those who refused His gift of propitiation were judged every man according to their works. And death and hell were cast into the lake of fire. < final destination.

No one goes to the Father except through Christ. When Christ returns to the Jews they will realize who He is and accept Him as their Messiah. And He and His bride will then take up residence in the land God gave the Jews forever. In Jerusalem.
Many subjects touch on the topic of this thread. The bottom line is that the people calling themselves "Jews" today are not biblical Israelites. They are converts to the religion of Judaism. They DO persecute Christians in a number of ways. If not through high interest through their banking institutions then by the tripe they create in Hollywood. Then you have the George Soros and Mark Zuckerberg and Harvey Weinstein types preying on Christians and non-Christians all for personal gain. Most of Biden's Cabinet identify as "Jews" and are running America into the ground.

Let's not yoke ourselves with these anti-Christ, "children of their father the devil." As long as they reject Christ then Christ shall reject them (and all people, for that matter). Christ is our example. We should follow His footsteps.
 
No, but modern Israel bears no resemblance to the ancient kingdom of Judah (which is what it should have been named).
No resemblance in what sense? It exists in the same place. It isn't a theocratic monarchy but is a modern state. No one claims that the modern political state is identical with the biblical kingdom. The land is the land of Israel (historically and currently) and the people are the children of Israel. Why call it something else?
So how does one proof that the modern state of Israel is fulfillment of that prophecy?
Why must one?
Look at the nations common laws, it emphasizes "Jew" and "Jewish people"
Show me in the "common laws" (though I think that you are using that term incorrectly) the mention of Jews.
it makes no mention of Israelites,
Because in terms of nomenclature that term is anachronistic (and has no equivalence in modern Hebrew).
so again why should we interpret todays state as being a fulfillment of that prophecy?
So don't. Many see the notion of Jews having a state which is designated as a Jewish homeland to be a step in the towards fulfillment.
But Jew means children of Judah (and also often includes children of Benjamin) all Jews are Israelites but not all Israelites are Jews.
I true. First off. If you read Chronicles you will bee that members of all tribes lived in the southern kingdom. Next, you are confusing "adherents to Mosaic Law" as a religious marker with Judah-ite as a statement of political identity. All 12 tribes were adherents but because the southern kingdom was populated to a large degree by one tribe, the term for identity of all there is "of Judah." That the later development of the English word had it as a religious term (since by then, the kingdoms had ceased) is irrelevant m
Israel today is the land of the Jews
No, it is the land of the nation of Israel.
- this is explicitly stated in the basic laws
First you are misunderstand the word "law." The word does not always mean directive or ordinance. It also means statement or decree. What is stated is a decree that Israel is a realization of the dream of self rule. Ancient Israel also had non Jews in it but was theocratic with biblical law applying to the various religions in different ways.
- non-Jew Israelites are not recognized,
And yet the actual laws of Israel make that distinction very rarely - Muslims are not required to draft into the army. Proselytizing to children is forbidden to Christians. What other laws distinguish?
so again this does not seem to match the prophecy in Jeremiah.
Sinc I don't claim it does I remain untroubled.
Israel today is secular,
Sometimes and somewhat.
persecutes its religious orthodox community
Really? I'm in Jerusalem right now and haven't seen this.
and is governed by fanatical nationalists.
Would you rather a country governed by people who aren't supportive of their own government and nation? How would they get elected on a platform of "we don't matter or need a country"? Do you have these same concerns over the many Islamic or Christian countries?
 
No resemblance in what sense? It exists in the same place. It isn't a theocratic monarchy but is a modern state. No one claims that the modern political state is identical with the biblical kingdom. The land is the land of Israel (historically and currently) and the people are the children of Israel. Why call it something else?
None of Israel's founding documents even mention God. Judah existed only in the southern half of what is today called Israel. The northern half was the kingdom of Israel. Jews formed the population of Judah not the northern kingdom, look at a historic map, it does not resemble the present day map.
Why must one?
Well in order to argue it's the fulfillment of prophecy one needs a way to prove that assertion.
Show me in the "common laws" (though I think that you are using that term incorrectly) the mention of Jews.
Yes, I meant "basic laws", you can go to the Knesset website, but here, I'll save you the effort:

Basic-Law: Israel - the Nation State of the Jewish People
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Because in terms of nomenclature that term is anachronistic (and has no equivalence in modern Hebrew).
If one wants to argue the size and shape and borders of the state based on the written historic record then that record should be used consistently. The term Israel then is likewise anachronistic by the same reasoning, also many orthodox Jews in Israel will tell you they are Israelites, not Israelis.
So don't. Many see the notion of Jews having a state which is designated as a Jewish homeland to be a step in the towards fulfillment.
Well there are evangelicals, lots of them, who insist that because Israel today is fulfillment of prophecy, then any attempt to resist it or restrict it, is illegitimate, resisting "God". Huge amounts of monetary donations are made to Zionist organizations by such people.
I true. First off. If you read Chronicles you will bee that members of all tribes lived in the southern kingdom. Next, you are confusing "adherents to Mosaic Law" as a religious marker with Judah-ite as a statement of political identity. All 12 tribes were adherents but because the southern kingdom was populated to a large degree by one tribe, the term for identity of all there is "of Judah." That the later development of the English word had it as a religious term (since by then, the kingdoms had ceased) is irrelevant m
So do you or do you not agree, Jew means children of Judah (and also often includes children of Benjamin) all Jews are Israelites but not all Israelites are Jews?
No, it is the land of the nation of Israel.
See the Basic Laws that I copied in, above.
First you are misunderstand the word "law." The word does not always mean directive or ordinance. It also means statement or decree. What is stated is a decree that Israel is a realization of the dream of self rule. Ancient Israel also had non Jews in it but was theocratic with biblical law applying to the various religions in different ways.
That's an interpretation, what it says is plan, it is specific to Jews, not Israelites. Furthermore that's intentional because no government would have a way to identify descendants of say Ephraim today but Jews have a traditional definition and that's easy to apply.
And yet the actual laws of Israel make that distinction very rarely - Muslims are not required to draft into the army. Proselytizing to children is forbidden to Christians. What other laws distinguish?
Here's one: The realization of the right to national self determination in the State of Israel is exclusive to the Jewish People.
Since I don't claim it does I remain untroubled.

Sometimes and somewhat.
The founding documents contain no mention of "God" again this undermines any theological claims made to justify the states existence.
Really? I'm in Jerusalem right now and haven't seen this.
There are lots of things I know are true yet have never seen. If you believe that only things you see or witness are real, then do so, but it's not a very reliable approach to epistemology.
Would you rather a country governed by people who aren't supportive of their own government and nation? How would they get elected on a platform of "we don't matter or need a country"? Do you have these same concerns over the many Islamic or Christian countries?
Well it seems your arguing that there's no alternative to extreme nationalism, if you want to believe that then do so. The Nazis believed that too but they were quite wrong as you can see by looking at Germany today.
 
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None of Israel's founding documents even mention God. Judah existed only in the southern half of what is today called Israel. The northern half was the kingdom of Israel. Jews formed the population of Judah not the northern kingdom, look at a historic map, it does not resemble the present day map.
Again, the word "Jews" is anachronistic and those two kingdoms split from a single kingdom which was in that area, more than what the current state is. Since you are mistakenly assuming that Jew is limited to the southern kingdom you are discounting the existence of the united kingdom. Why?
Well in order to argue it's the fulfillment of prophecy one needs a way to prove that assertion.
Good thing I didn't argue that.
Yes, I meant "basic laws", you can go to the Knesset website, but here, I'll save you the effort:

Basic-Law: Israel - the Nation State of the Jewish People
View attachment 977835
Those are, in Hebrew, chukim, decrees, not laws. Let's quote the original Hebrew so you can see that you are wrong.
If one wants to argue the size and shape and borders of the state based on the written historic record then that record should be used consistently. The term Israel then is likewise anachronistic by the same reasoning, also many orthodox Jews in Israel will tell you they are Israelites, not Israelis.
The term Israel is not anachronistic. It was the name of the area before 1948 and it continued to be the name of the country after 1948. It was the name of the people in Davidic days. And no Orthodox Jew will say he is an Israelite. Please don't tell me what my culture says.
Well there are evangelicals, lots of them, who insist that because Israel today is fulfillment of prophecy, then any attempt to resist it or restrict it, is illegitimate, resisting "God". Huge amounts of monetary donations are made to Zionist organizations by such people.
So go argue with them about it. Tell them you know better how they should spend their money.
So do you or do you not agree, Jew means children of Judah (and also often includes children of Benjamin) all Jews are Israelites but not all Israelites are Jews?
Disagree. There is no biblical term "Israelite" and the kingdom of Judah had members of all tribes. If you want to label members of a nation Israelite then you would be including non Jews in the biblical kingdoms but since that term has no value, why use it?
That's an interpretation, what it says is plan, it is specific to Jews, not Israelites
Since you insist on using a worthless word, you will be disappointed when you try to use your word of choice in a document that doesn't recognize the validity of that word.
. Furthermore that's intentional because no government would have a way to identify descendants of say Ephraim today but Jews have a traditional definition and that's easy to apply.
There are descendants of Ephraim who are Jews. The traditional definition has nothing to do with tribes. You really should ask things and not assert because you don't know very much.
Here's one: The realization of the right to national self determination in the State of Israel is exclusive to the Jewish People.
Um, yeah. The realization of national determination is unique in Israel to Jews. Thats a foundational concept, not a determinative law.
The founding documents contain no mention of "God" again this undermines any theological claims made to justify the states existence.
There is a huge amount of discussion of the role of theology and the debates among the founders of Israel about whether or not to include God in the founding documents. Certain compromises were made. You really should read the first 2 paragraphs of the Israeli declaration of independence if you want to see theological claims without mentioning God's name.
There are lots of things I know are true yet have never seen. If you believe that only things you see or witness are real, then do so, but it's not a very reliable approach to epistemology.
So you KNOW it is true even though you haven't seen it and have no proof of its existence. That's a great way to know that there is a Santa Claus. Merry Christmas. Meanwhile your knowledge flies in thr face of my actual life experience. Blind belief in something which actual participants deny is a dumb way to live. Should I come to you and say "people by your name live in the moon. I haven't seen it but I KNOW it." You might say "no one I know who shares my name lives on the moon" and you would say that experience doesn't matter - just your insistence on what you claim to know with no proof.
Well it seems your arguing that there's no alternative to extreme nationalism, if you want to believe that then do so. The Nazis believed that too but they were quite wrong as you can see by looking at Germany today.
And you argue that Israel's existence is about "extreme" nationalism (which you leave undefined) and don't seem to have a problem with other current examples of nationalism. That's selective and therefore flawed rhetoric.

If you want, I can go through a bunch of your posts and document all the times you made assertions and claims with no proof and had to back down when told otherwise. This is just more in that category.
 
Again, the word "Jews" is anachronistic and those two kingdoms split from a single kingdom which was in that area, more than what the current state is. Since you are mistakenly assuming that Jew is limited to the southern kingdom you are discounting the existence of the united kingdom. Why?
Because the Basic Laws specifically exclude other Israelite tribes. If I am a descendant from the tribe Ephraim I do not have the same right of return as do Jews. If I claimed I was a descendant would I get the automatic right to citizenship that Jews get?
Good thing I didn't argue that.

Those are, in Hebrew, chukim, decrees, not laws. Let's quote the original Hebrew so you can see that you are wrong.
Does the Hebrew refer to "Jew" and "Jewish" or "Israelite"? why is it so poorly translated if the Hebrew uses the latter term?
The term Israel is not anachronistic. It was the name of the area before 1948 and it continued to be the name of the country after 1948. It was the name of the people in Davidic days. And no Orthodox Jew will say he is an Israelite. Please don't tell me what my culture says.
Here's an orthodox Jew saying he's an Israelite, its prepositioned, just click it:

So go argue with them about it. Tell them you know better how they should spend their money.
Very well, I won't discuss this with you.
Disagree. There is no biblical term "Israelite" and the kingdom of Judah had members of all tribes. If you want to label members of a nation Israelite then you would be including non Jews in the biblical kingdoms but since that term has no value, why use it?
The term "Israelite" is understood to mean "child of Israel". The kingdom of Judah was what remained after ten tribes rebelled against the (then) king of Israel, it was comprised of the tribe Judah and later joined by Benjamin. The ten tribes became known as the Kingdom of Israel and the other two the Kingdom of Judah, those people were Jews.

The term Jew does not refer to any member of the original twelve tribes, I'm sure you know this but you seem to be protesting about this.

The term "Jew" is derived from the Hebrew word יְהוּדִי Yehudi, with the plural יְהוּדִים Yehudim.[49] Endonyms in other Jewish languages include the Ladino ג׳ודיו Djudio (plural ג׳ודיוס, Djudios) and the Yiddish ייִד Yid (plural ייִדן Yidn). Originally, in ancient times, Yehudi (Jew)[50] was used to describe the inhabitants of the Israelite kingdom of Judah. It is also used to distinguish their descendants from the gentiles and the Samaritans.
Exactly. So "Jew" excludes the other tribes, it is a term that denotes a member of the tribes Judah and/or Benjamin, that's if we pay heed to the written history anyway.

Since you insist on using a worthless word, you will be disappointed when you try to use your word of choice in a document that doesn't recognize the validity of that word.

There are descendants of Ephraim who are Jews.
Can you provide a biblical basis for this claim?
The traditional definition has nothing to do with tribes. You really should ask things and not assert because you don't know very much.
I'm not speaking of "traditions" but of the recorded written historical record.
Um, yeah. The realization of national determination is unique in Israel to Jews. Thats a foundational concept, not a determinative law.

There is a huge amount of discussion of the role of theology and the debates among the founders of Israel about whether or not to include God in the founding documents. Certain compromises were made. You really should read the first 2 paragraphs of the Israeli declaration of independence if you want to see theological claims without mentioning God's name.

So you KNOW it is true even though you haven't seen it and have no proof of its existence. That's a great way to know that there is a Santa Claus. Merry Christmas. Meanwhile your knowledge flies in thr face of my actual life experience. Blind belief in something which actual participants deny is a dumb way to live. Should I come to you and say "people by your name live in the moon. I haven't seen it but I KNOW it." You might say "no one I know who shares my name lives on the moon" and you would say that experience doesn't matter - just your insistence on what you claim to know with no proof.

And you argue that Israel's existence is about "extreme" nationalism (which you leave undefined) and don't seem to have a problem with other current examples of nationalism. That's selective and therefore flawed rhetoric.
I leave it undefined for the simple reason I assumed you were familiar with the political meaning, but here if you want a definition here's one. That I don't speak about other instances of nationalism should not be taken to mean I am unconcerned about them. I am concerned about increasing nationalism in the United States for example.

Your other remarks about not seeing things are illogical. Not seeing something cannot be taken to show that there are no instances of that thing, this is pretty basic logic so I don't know why you want to dwell on it.
if you want, I can go through a bunch of your posts and document all the times you made assertions and claims with no proof and had to back down when told otherwise. This is just more in that category.
Well I'm happy to answer questions and provide supporting data if you want it. You said though that you are in Jerusalem and haven't seen examples of persecution of the orthodox community, you dismissed this, you did not ask for supporting material, it was a blanket rejection of the very idea that this goes on in Israel, denial.

So just watch the whole of that video I included above, there's the persecution that you've convinced yourself, doesn't take place in the wonderfully egalitarian state Israel.
 
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Because the Basic Laws specifically exclude other Israelite tribes. If I am a descendant from the tribe Ephraim I do not have the same right of return as do Jews.
that may be the single dumbest thing anyone has ever said.
If I claimed I was a descendant would I get the automatic right to citizenship that Jews get?
The right to return is unrelated to any tribal affiliation. Are you really saying this? I drank a lot last night and fear that this is all a weird dream.
Does the Hebrew refer to "Jew" and "Jewish" or "Israelite"? why is it so poorly translated if the Hebrew uses the latter term?
Jewish. The "Jewish People".Why are you asking about the translation's quality. Just read it in the original. If I wanted to study the US declaration of Independence, I wouldn't read it in Russian and complain that the translation is poor.
Here's an orthodox Jew saying he's an Israelite, its prepositioned, just click it:

You shouldn't read the captions. Listen to the Hebrew. He actually says "we don't have a connection to the state of Israel, we are the nation of Israel." If you insist on letting others translate for you, you let them control what you think you know. He is discussing the idea of a secular state vs. the biblical nation. Some Jews reject the idea of a secular, political entity and only want a fully theocratic (messianic era) one.
The term "Israelite" is understood to mean "child of Israel".
well, you understand it to mean that. Let's not confuse your notions with anything else or anyone else's.
The kingdom of Judah was what remained after ten tribes rebelled against the (then) king of Israel, it was comprised of the tribe Judah and later joined by Benjamin. The ten tribes became known as the Kingdom of Israel and the other two the Kingdom of Judah, those people were Jews.
Not really true. The northern kingdom which had members of 11 tribes was exiled, but people from all those tribes had moved to the southern kingdom (2 Chronicles 11: 3 and 15-16, 15:9. See also Ezra 8:35 and Nechemia 12:47.
The term Jew does not refer to any member of the original twelve tribes, I'm sure you know this but you seem to be protesting about this.
this is a tidbit you have invented. You aren't much on facts if you haven't made them up yourself, it seems.
Exactly. So "Jew" excludes the other tribes, it is a term that denotes a member of the tribes Judah and/or Benjamin, that's if we pay heed to the written history anyway.
Nope. Still wrong. You can keep saying it, but that doesn't make it so.
Can you provide a biblical basis for this claim?
already done.
I'm not speaking of "traditions" but of the recorded written historical record.
And I have provided biblical sources. Have you read them? What is your proof for anything? A poorly captioned video? A conflation of the biblical record with the modern Hebrew (you do realize that the languages aren't the same, right) in translation?
I leave it undefined for the simple reason I assumed you were familiar with the political meaning, but here if you want a definition here's one.
you do realize that that wiki entry doesn't define the term either, right? Care to define it yourself?
That I don't speak about other instances of nationalism should not be taken to mean I am unconcerned about them.
since you are concerned about them, can you show me some posts you have made about them? Or do you only focus on Israel?
I am concerned about increasing nationalism in the United States for example.
what standard will you use to know when it becomes "extreme"? The phrase "My America, right or wrong" is from the 19th century. The 1970's era bumper sticker "America, Love it or Leave it" seems extreme to me. I guess you don't think so. I haven't seen either sentiment in Israel.
Your other remarks about not seeing things are illogical. Not seeing something cannot be taken to show that there are no instances of that thing, this is pretty basic logic so I don't know why you want to dwell on it.
And not seeing things can't be taken to show that they DO exist. You have yet to prove your assertions with anything. You simply claim, and in the face of experience, you say "so what." There are tall people who are short. I haven't seen them but that doesn't mean they don't exist. And just because a tall person says that it isn't true means nothing.
Well I'm happy to answer questions and provide supporting data if you want it. You said though that you are in Jerusalem and haven't seen examples of persecution of the orthodox community, you dismissed this, you did not ask for supporting material, it was a blanket rejection of the very idea that this goes on in Israel, denial.
What I did was undercut the authority of your statement which was made without proof. If you want to reassert the authority of your claim, you need to prove it. Otherwise, Hitchen's Razor applies.
So just watch the whole of that video I included above, there's the persecution that you've convinced yourself, doesn't take place in the wonderfully egalitarian state Israel.
You really don't understand either the video or your own claim. Remember, your claim was that the secular state "persecutes its religious orthodox community." Do you even know what "religious orthodox community" means? A video about a small faction which doesn't believe in the secular state isn't abut the persecution of the religious orthodox community. If you ever spent 5 minutes in Israel you would see this.

Do you have any other inventions to float?
 
that may be the single dumbest thing anyone has ever said.

The right to return is unrelated to any tribal affiliation. Are you really saying this? I drank a lot last night and fear that this is all a weird dream.
The Law of Return is specific to "Jews" that's inarguable if one reads that law. Now I quote the Britannica (though there are many sources):
Modern Jews, moreover, trace their lineage to the tribes of Judah and Benjamin (absorbed by Judah) or to the tribe, or group, of clans of religious functionaries known as Levites.
Therefore the right of return is specific to the tribes Judah and Benjamin, at least the sources at my disposal support that conclusion, it seems uncontroversial too, obvious.

As for the translation in the video you can see I was telling the truth, I did not simply make this up, you are free to dispute the accuracy of that translation. But I see no point in discussing these other points you raise here until we settle the argument about Jews, Judah and the specificity of the tribes mentioned in the states laws and founding documents.

So please review my answer above and either accept what I say or confirm that in your opinion that Britannica entry is wrong. You see that Britannica entry and your assertion "The right to return is unrelated to any tribal affiliation" are irreconcilable one of them - your or Britannica - must be wrong.
 
that may be the single dumbest thing anyone has ever said.

The right to return is unrelated to any tribal affiliation. Are you really saying this? I drank a lot last night and fear that this is all a weird dream.

Here's more on this topic, this is what Josephus says in Jewish Antiquities

“the whole of Israel remained in that land [of exile], so it came about that only two tribes returned to Asia and Europe and are subject to the Romans. But the ten tribes are still beyond the Euphrates River and are a boundless multitude too great to number”

and

“after they [the two tribes] returned from Babylon, they were called Jews after the tribe of Judah, since that was the prominent tribe”

I trust clears things up for you, unless of course you don't regard Josephus as a legitimate historical source.
 
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The Law of Return is specific to "Jews" that's inarguable if one reads that law. Now I quote the Britannica (though there are many sources):
First off, you have now moved from the Basic Laws to the right of return. Next, do you have a problem with the law of return for Jews?
Therefore the right of return is specific to the tribes Judah and Benjamin, at least the sources at my disposal support that conclusion, it seems uncontroversial too, obvious.
No, you are completely wrong because you have ignored everything I said. Wilfull ignorance is not a good look. The modern word for Jew is just that, a modern word for Jew that is a catch all for all Jews. It is not a tribal marker. And since, textually, I have shown you that in the kingdom of Judah, there were members of all tribes, your claim is a non-starter. Of course, 'Jew' has nothing to do with the kingdom of Judah either as Judaism includes converts. Do your homework and stop saying silly things.
As for the translation in the video you can see I was telling the truth,
no, you were parroting an inaccurate statement and you believe it is true. That's what wilfull ignorance gets you.
I did not simply make this up, you are free to dispute the accuracy of that translation. But I see no point in discussing these other points you raise here until we settle the argument about Jews, Judah and the specificity of the tribes mentioned in the states laws and founding documents.
No tribes are mentioned in that document. You think there are but you are wrong. Nothing else to resolve. You are simply wrong. The Britannica is talking about one thing and you have decided that it is talking about something else. Don't try reading Shakespeare with a modern English dictionary.
 
Here's more on this topic, this is what Josephus says in Jewish Antiquities



and



I trust clears things up for you, unless of course you don't regard Josephus as a legitimate historical source.
I don't. Apparently you reject the bible.
How do you feel about the Britannica?
 
First off, you have now moved from the Basic Laws to the right of return. Next, do you have a problem with the law of return for Jews?
Yes I mentioned the right of return because I'm discussing the way that right excludes other Israelite tribes. Yes I do have a problem, but that's a separate theme to what's being discussed here.
No, you are completely wrong because you have ignored everything I said. Wilfull ignorance is not a good look. The modern word for Jew is just that, a modern word for Jew that is a catch all for all Jews. It is not a tribal marker.
I've not ignored what you said, I've disagreed with it and presented my reasons for doing so. The historic record shows that "Jews" and "Israelites" were distinguished between, this is found in Josephus and the New Testament book Romans. Paul use "Jews" in that book, yet in Romans 9 - thru 11 he uses "Israelite" - if "Jews" meant the same as "Israelites" he'd not bother to switch terms would he?
And since, textually, I have shown you that in the kingdom of Judah, there were members of all tribes, your claim is a non-starter. Of course, 'Jew' has nothing to do with the kingdom of Judah either as Judaism includes converts. Do your homework and stop saying silly things.
Well you never "showed" that "there were members of all tribes" in Judah, you just asserted it, I mean it's a reasonable assumption but still an assumption and assumptions aren't "shown" they're assumed.

I did homework and dug out the written history, written by two Jews and he is one of the very few sources that actually say what the word "Jew" represents. I never claimed that Judah was comprised exclusively of members of tribes Judah and Benjamin.
no, you were parroting an inaccurate statement and you believe it is true. That's what wilfull ignorance gets you.

No tribes are mentioned in that document.
Of course they are, by logical implication - "Jew" arose over 2,500 years ago to represent the two tribes which returned from Babylon. Israel/Israelite and Jew are not synonymous in Josephus' accounts.

Look, this is from Josephus:

So the Jews prepared for the work. That is the name they are called by from the day that they came up from Babylon; which is taken from the tribe of Judah, which came first to these places, and thence both they and the country gained that appellation.
There it is - how can you deny reality? All you can say is "you are wrong" and "you are simply wrong" over and over!
You think there are but you are wrong. Nothing else to resolve. You are simply wrong. The Britannica is talking about one thing and you have decided that it is talking about something else. Don't try reading Shakespeare with a modern English dictionary.
How about YOU provide some evidence, some historic sources to support your belief that these terms are synonymous?
 
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I don't. Apparently you reject the bible.

Not at all, I have no idea what led you to that view, I even cite the book of Romans above. You might like to pretend there are no tribes or that there's no distinction between them but the Bible does not.
 
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How do you feel about the Britannica?
It's a great encyclopedia, I wish I still had my old printed copy but things move on. I think the caution about "not always accepted as totally reliable" is absolutely true as it is of every ancient historic source.
 
Yes I mentioned the right of return because I'm discussing the way that right excludes other Israelite tribes. Yes I do have a problem, but that's a separate theme to what's being discussed here.
So you admit you changed topics midstream. Great.
I've not ignored what you said, I've disagreed with it and presented my reasons for doing so.
No, you have ignored it and not rebutted it. You have no basis for disagreeing so you don't account for it and maintain your erroneous position.
The historic record shows that "Jews" and "Israelites" were distinguished between, this is found in Josephus and the New Testament book Romans. Paul use "Jews" in that book, yet in Romans 9 - thru 11 he uses "Israelite" - if "Jews" meant the same as "Israelites" he'd not bother to switch terms would he?
Your sources are Josephus (in translation) and the Gospels (in translation). You are claiming that the translator (who was he?) used certain words, not that the texts do. That you can't see that is, frankly, sad.
Well you never "showed" that "there were members of all tribes" in Judah, you just asserted it, I mean it's a reasonable assumption but still an assumption and assumptions aren't "shown" they're assumed.
No, I cited biblical verses. You must have had your blinders on so you chose not to see it.
I did homework and dug out the written history, written by two Jews and he is one of the very few sources that actually say what the word "Jew" represents. I never claimed that Judah was comprised exclusively of members of tribes Judah and Benjamin.
You said the term excludes all the other tribes. And which two Jews? Josephus, whose reputation as a self-serving traitor whose history is suspect and the anonymous gospel writer? Both in translation. I wish you could appreciate how truly funny and pathetic that is.
Of course they are, by logical implication - "Jew" arose over 2,500 years ago to represent the two tribes which returned from Babylon. Israel/Israelite and Jew are not synonymous in Josephus' accounts.
You keep wanting to hang your hat on a translation of Josephus. Why?
There it is - how can you deny reality? All you can say is "you are wrong" and "you are simply wrong" over and over!
Actually I can and have shown that you are wrong and that you don't understand the language, or in fact how language works.
How about YOU provide some evidence, some historic sources to support your belief that these terms are synonymous?
They are not historical terms. They are more recent coinages in English. You really aren't getting it.
 

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