Correct on both counts. The fact of the matter is that Aristotle's organic logic was rock solid insofar as its unaided analysis of the raw sensory data went. This was not a breakdown in logic. This was merely mathematically unamplified logic, essentially, insufficient data. All the while the organic principle of identity was doing precisely what it's supposed to do, including eventually alerting us to the actual nuts and bolts of the problem. Ultimately, the real problem was simply a lack of knowledge, not a problem of logic at all.
But QW knows these things . . . except when his ill-considered expressions confuse the matter, as in his FYI that there are things that exist that our brains can't detect, which, ultimately, is the same thing as saying that our senses limit us. Yet we know these things exist! How? Because as he tells us we can imagine the existence of things (via the organic principle of identity) and build technology that magnifies our senses that we might perceive/measure the effects of their presence, which was initially conceived to be in our minds because of other effects that we were able to perceive/measure due to other forms of technology. But then who in their right minds believes that we can reliably explain things based on what our senses convey alone in the first place?
No one who understands the principle of identity believes that for moment.
Yet Copernicus, with that same rock solid analysis of sensory data, reached a different conclusion, and used math to prove it.
What did Aristotle use again?
That's right, he didn't use anything. Why? Because philosophers think their brain is better than science.
Actually, more accurately, they both used sensory data
and math, but there's a twist here, which I really didn't want to get into, but since you seem to think I'm doing extracurricular philosophizing, which I'm not, or defending such. . . .
First of all, I don't know why you keep saying Aristotle didn't use sensory data. That's false. That's mostly what he did use. Aristotle was not the Idealist. Plato was. Aristotle was the classical inspiration for the empiricists of the Enlightenment era: Locke, Hume, Berkeley and others. . . . Aristotle's blank slate is Locke's
tabula rasa, which, by the way, has been mostly falsified too.
What led Aristotle astray was his extracurricular philosophizing
in violation of the recommendations of the principle of identity. Ironically, as you alluded earlier, he got it into his head that the perfections of the Logos (God)—which, according to him and the latter empiricists, are inferred by our minds upon experiential reflection rather than from innate ideas directly—that those "heavenly movements" that didn't line up with the perfection of geometric circularity must be miscalculations. He had the information he needed to get it right all along!
(Now of course the latter empiricists didn't make the same astronomical mistake; one had nothing to do with the other. Besides, Copernicus' model, improved by Brahe and Kepler and affirmed by Galileo, was well-established, and Newton was in the mix by then.)
In other words, the classical empiricist Aristotle wasn't entirely free of his teacher's influence; however, the bulk of the mathematical calculi based on the sensory data of the unaided eye from an earthly perspective worked. He simply decided to disregard those aspects of the sensory data on the peripheral of his "ideal model" in spite the fact that the principle of identity was telling him there was a problem.
Copernicus, on the other hand, refused to "square that circle." He paid attention to the recommendations of the principle of identity and took Averoes' criticisms of the Ptolemaic model seriously. He intuited a heliocentric model and found that its mathematics squared all the data.
I'll say this again. Philosophy is not bullshit. It's indispensable to science, and it precedes science. It deals with the what.
What is it metaphysically and, thus,
what is it definitively? We can't do conceptualization or language without it either. The problem arises when people abuse philosophy, or science for that matter!
They both have strict limitations, and we may know what they are via the principle of identity.
Abuse or disregard the recommendations of the principle of identity and you will drive off the road into a ditch. The principle of identity is indispensable to theology, philosophy and science. It's the fundamental tool of apprehension and the assimilation of data. That's all it is. The principle of identity is reliable. It's the tool that tells us that only so much about
the why and
the how can be had relative to the data at hand, and philosophy is not the right medium for getting at the deeper truths of
the why and
the how.
I understand what the principle of identity is. I understand how it works. I don't disregard it or misconstrue it. That's why I don't do "philosophical bullshit."
That's why I don't imagine that things like the Majorana fermion violate it when they don't. That's why I don't harbor any illusions that the major premise of its logical proof can be refuted given the fact that the principle is necessarily asserted by the arguer in the very act of trying to refute it.
That's why I embrace the concepts of omniscience, omnipotence and omnipresence and the ramifications thereof as they come at us without bias. That's why I don't countenance the "philosophical bullshit" that would arbitrarily impose a limitation on the unadulterated perfection of the Eternal Now's ability to create an infinite number of dimensional states of being wherein free will would readily thrive without conflict. In other words, I don't pretend to know that I'm
not in such a dimensional state that would be perfectly compatible with the principle of identity which allows for
A = A (X, Y, Z simultaneously).
Overly technical?
Coercive?
Whaaaaaa?
I'm not the one suggesting God has to be something less than absolutely omniscient, i.e., must necessarily withhold Himself from knowing things absolutely in some way or another in order for free will to actually persist!
The interesting thing about this assertion from theistic philosophy is that it's actually predicated on the organic laws of logic, albeit, as misconstrued to preclude that any given
A cannot be simultaneously
X and
Y. But that notion is false, and given the fact that professional philosophers know that (I'll get to Intuitionistic logic tomorrow.), one wonders why some of them don't simply allow that they are treading on ground that belongs to theology.