I don't know everything that you don't know, but you're embarrassing yourself on this. The plan was named after the general, not a fighting style from Enter the Dragon.
Marshall Plan - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
As I said, a smartass wisecrack can't substitute for an argument. Neither can a source that doesn't conflict with what I said in any way.
"By 1952 as the funding ended, the economy of every participant state had surpassed pre-war levels; for all Marshall Plan recipients, output in 1951 was at least 35% higher than in 1938.[8] Over the next two decades, Western Europe enjoyed unprecedented growth and prosperity, but economists are not sure what proportion was due directly to the ERP, what proportion indirectly, and how much would have happened without it.. . .
"Especially damaged was transportation infrastructure, as railways, bridges, and docks had been specifically targeted by air strikes, while much merchant shipping had been sunk."
There you go. Just what I said: the main damage was to railroads and other transportation infrastructure, the U.S. contributed to rebuilding the same while providing food aid for the hungry, the job was essentially completed within a year or two (although the Marshall Plan extended for four years total), and the economies of all participants exceeded prewar production by very shortly after the war ended. (I had read elsewhere that the German and Japanese economies did not fully recover until the mid to late 1950s, while this article seems to suggest that it was earlier -- it doesn't really matter, though.)
The idea that postwar prosperity in the U.S. was due to the wartime destruction has no basis in fact. Actually, it has no basis in theory, either. You don't believe in that "beggar-thy-neighbor" reasoning yourself, I daresay, in any other context; for example, I suspect you don't approve of mercantilism or of protectionism. But if the U.S. really did become prosperous because the rest of the world was in ruins, then logically both mercantilism and protectionism are sound ideas, since they flow from exactly the same basis.
No. It's as I said before: most participants in the war had stronger industrial bases after the war than before it, once the transportation infrastructure had been repaired the economy of Europe was stronger than ever, and competition from foreign sources did not wait until the 1970s to start. It began within a few years of the war's end, and after that the U.S. economy did not go into decline but became even more wealthy -- which is exactly what we should expect as our foreign trading partners have stronger economies and can afford to buy more of our exports.
The reason for our unprecedented prosperity in the DECADES (please note once more) after World War II lies elsewhere.