Toddsterpatriot
Diamond Member
Mac1958, how the concept of wage differentials can be applied in as complicated or as simple a manner as individual employers wish to apply it.It's complicated as hell, because the effects of low-end wage increases are not linear. It's mostly an industry-specific issue, because wages represent significantly different percentages of overall business expense, based on the type of business we're talking about.
PLUS, minimum wage increases would also necessarily increase the wages and associated costs of those above minimum wage job descriptions, so the domino effect would be most likely be another significant piece of this puzzle.
At the same time, we have forces pushing in the opposite direction: It's impossible to (honestly) justify paying government benefits to someone who also has a full time job. That's effectively a government subsidy to employers, incentivizing them to keep wages low. And more critical and timely is the increasing wealth disparities in this country, which are only making the job easier for those who want higher and higher minimum wages. And their constituents vote.
As usual, both ends of this issue are keeping their arguments at about a third-grade level because they absolutely refuse to acknowledge the complexities inherent in it. Until we can -- if we can, at this point -- demonstrate that we fully understand the big picture, we'll just keep flopping around like we are.
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The concept of wage differentials is not a particular industry-specific, or government expenditures, or government subsidies, or wealth disparity, issues.
Yes, the concept is particularly related to job descriptions, and it's itself primarily an example of “domino effect” as applied in conjunction with the minimum wage rate. The minimum wage rate is a political issue.
Until I read ToddsterPatriot's post, I wasn't aware of wage differential concept being an issue to anyone. I greatly doubt if it's an issue among economists.
Respectfully, Supposn
I wasn't aware of wage differential concept being an issue to anyone.
I have an issue with the following.
If X = $2/ per Hr., the indefinite minimum wage rate would be $2/per Hr.
What's now a $20 per Hr rate was increased from $14.75 indefinite market-determined rate.
Post your proof that a $20/hr worker would only earn $14.75 if the minimum wage was $2.
If your proof is just your feelings, you can just admit there is no proof.
I greatly doubt if it's an issue among economists.
If you have an economist who has more than a feeling about your claim, post it.