What tomb did Isaiah say Israel was buried in? Why keep referring to He instead of they or it? How did Israel die to forgive it's own sin?King James translated (or deliberately changed--who knows--) the original Hebrew of "from our" to "for our". Isaiah 53, notes that Israel, the suffering servant, was suffering from and because of their own wrong-doings (i.e., "from" our).
When Isaiah identifies who he is referring to, by calling Him, the Lord, to remove any doubt, how does one translate that into Israel?
Can you seriously read that scripture and not recognize who Isaiah is referring to?