I can tell you've NEVER been to court on this issue:
"Inalienable rights: Rights which are not capable of being surrendered or transferred without the consent of the one possessing such rights." Morrison v. State, Mo. App., 252 S.W.2d 97, 101.
You cannot surrender or forfeit an
unalienable Right.
"
The right of a citizen to bear arms in lawful defense of himself or the State, is absolute. He does not derive it from the State government. It is one of the high powers delegated directly to the citizen, and is excepted out of the general powers of government. A law cannot be passed to infringe upon or impair it, because it is above the law, and independent of the lawmaking power."
-
Cockrum v. State, 24 Tex. 394 (1859)
Cockrum does not make the point you are alleging.
Government cannot pass laws to infringe or impair in/unalienable rights.
All rights can be surrendered by consent.
You're NOT making the distinction you apparently believe.
.
Do you want a complete brief just so others will realize you're wrong? Let them check out the link AND it's internal links:
Stolen Rights
BTW, what did you do, read the first post in that link?
I looked at the whole thing.
NOWHERE do they provide a case that distinguishes inalienable from unalienable.
The only thing they provide is that
Morrison case that, by implication, says
inalienable rights can be surrendered or transferred with consent. It apparently makes no distinction between inalienable and unalienable.
Those apparently-untrained legal "experts" are reading in a distinction that was never made.
Just because government cannot pass laws infringing on "unalienable" rights, does not mean those rights cannot be surrendered or transferred by consent.
Show me the case distinguishing inalienable and unalienable. I assume you have some legal authority stating that "unalienable" rights cannot be surrendered or transferred by consent, do you not?
I'll wait.
.
If you're that stupid, I suppose that there would be no way to educate you, but that link IIRC makes the distinction clear. Let me check... Yep. Posts 5, 6 and 12 were pretty inclusive.
The courts interpreted the words inherent, natural, absolute, and
unalienable the same way. There is
no court case interpreting the word
inalienable as being "
above the law, and independent of the lawmaking power." That is exactly the opposite of what you're arguing. If a Right is above the lawmaking power, it is only common sense that you don't have a Right to forfeit something above the reach of government.
The lawyer lobby (aka The American (sic) Bar Association) has gone to great lengths to cover up the subtle change. The ABA is the most liberal body on the face of the earth. So, when looking at the original word
unalienable in court decisions, that word had a very specific meaning - and that meaning included being above the law.
Inalienable came along AFTER passage of the 14th Amendment and was always used afterward because
inalienable rights ARE subject to alienation. People of tremendous ignorance argue the point, but the one thing they cannot do is show you, in any case law at the federal level, wherein an
unalienable Right was subject to alienation if you consented. NOT being subject to alienation was the very essence of he word.
Furthermore,
unalienable is the word used in the Declaration of Independence - which is at the head of the United States Code; therefore it is the official and legal word whose meaning is so important. Lo and behold, the lawyer lobby is just as opposed to that word as you are. So, they even removed it from legal dictionaries.
So, if we can forfeit
inalienable rights, we have no defense against gun control. A majority can vote to forfeit it for the rest of us. And you said that
inalienable rights are subject to alienation, so the left only has to remind you of their de facto "democracy" and you have no legal case.
Sorry, you fail counselor.