The universe cannot be an actual infinity because a portion of an actual infinity is equal to infinity. If an infinite amount of time had passed before this moment in time, this moment in time would never have been reached. One part of an actual infinity is indistinguishable from another. If time was actually infinite, there would be no discernible sequences of events. The argument that the universe cannot be actually infinite simply because things in nature cannot be actually infinite was made in support of the KCA, not by the KCA itself.
1. Everything that begins to exist has a cause.
2. The universe began to exist.
3. Therefore, the universe must have a cause.
Petitio principii.
You seem to have a fundamental misunderstanding of what question-begging is, or you're being disingenuous. Repeating an inaccurate accusation over and over again won't make it any more true.
You'd be making a point if your accusation was applicable--it's diversionary bullshit. I have explained each time, for each reiteration of your argument where it's question-begging, and not even once did you attempt refutation, except for creating another question-begging reiteration. Rewording, while maintaining the same question-begging presumptions in your argument, over and over again won't make your argument any more valid.
I can provide another rephrasing of the argument, if you'd like.
- Every event has a cause.
Does your definition of "event" insist we accept the existence of the "cause" in your conclusion? If your definition of "the universe is" "every event", or you if you presume that "the universe" is included in "every event", then this premise is contingent upon first accepting your conclusion to be true--if you don't think this might be question begging, then you have a fundamental misunderstanding of what question-begging is.
- The physical universe has a beginning.
Well, the first law of themodynamics suggests otherwise, but that's of course is not the point I'm trying to make. I only have to accept that the universe has a beginning, if I accept that the universe has a cause. The truth of this premise is, again, contingent upon the conclusion first being accepted as true--if you don't think this is question begging, then you have a fundamental misunderstanding of what question-begging is.
- All beginnings involve an event.
Only relevent if the universe had a beginning, and if you're asserting that the universe is an event, then you're only saying (for the case of the universe) that all beginnings involve a [the] universe.
- This implies that the beginning of the physical universe involved an event.
No. It implies that events (which have a beginning) involve the universe.
- Therefore, the physical universe has a cause.
This is just restating your 2nd premise, and most likely your first.
Once again, the conclusion does not appear as a premise.
It certainly does. Predictably so.
And I say predictably so, because those who submit these kinds of "arguments" already "
know", through
faith, that their creator exists and they invariably fit their premises to match their conclusions--they have to. In their world, their reality begins in belief rather than their belief beginning in reality--the faithful are the truest of subjectivists--it's not at all surprising that their premises are contingent upon accepting their conclusion to be true first.
For illustrative purposes, let me build for you a competing syllogism, contructed the same way [premises from conclusion] as the KCA:
- Everything that exists has a cause;
- The creator of everything has no cause;
- Therefore the creator of everything does not exist.
I'm hoping you can see the question-begging presumtions in the first premise; I'm hoping you can see the patent question-begging in the second premise; I hoping you can see every criticism I've made to your presentation of KCA applied to this argument; and I'm also hoping you're able to imagine dozens of ways to reword those premises to obsfucate the question-begging nature of the premises.
Just like the KCA, the above argument--that "proves" that a creator of the universe does not exist--is entirely fallaceous due to being built from the conclusion to the premises. I would ask those making this fallaceous argument, in this invalid manner, to please stop.
And now, I'm asking you to stop. Ok?
EDIT: BTW, "a portion of an actual infinity is equal to infinity" is an example of a compositional error,
How's that? Poor word choice, maybe, but what I said is correct. The number of natural numbers, a subset of real numbers, is equal to the number of real numbers.
[5,6,7,8] is a subset of real numbers, it is also a subset of natural numbers, and it is NOT equal to infinity, it is NOT equal to the set of natural numbers, it is NOT equal to the set of real numbers, and it is fully distinguishable from both. What you said was incorrect.
Maybe you meant to say "An infinity is indistinguishable from another infinity."
as is "One part of an actual infinity is indistinguishable from another". For instance, there are infinite real numbers; pi, a part of the the actual infinity of real numbers, is distinguishable from the infinity it is part of, and each part of the infinity that constitutes the infinity of real numbers.
Time and number sets are completely different.
Not if you're saying (Just to be clear, I'm not asserting you're saying this), "An infinity is indistinguishable from another infinity."
As I've said, if the universe had always existed, it would have reached maximum entropy an infinite amount of time ago. It would be impossible to pinpoint exactly when maximum entropy was reached. No clear chronological distinction could be made between the point at which the universe was formed and the point at which it attained maximum entropy, as both events would have occurred an infinite amount of time ago.
Only if "always existed" requires an infinite regession into the past--rather than a beginningless past--or requires a notion of infinity in time that excludes any finite boundaries.
Consider the notion of an infinite area. It does not need to have infinite length, AND infinite width--if one dimension is infinite, the area is necessarily infinite, yet that area still has boundaries; finite boundaries. I don't know if time is one dimensional or not, but just as the universe doesn't have to be infinite in length, width, height, mass, matter, energy, probabilities, entropy, . . . etc., to be infinite, it does not have to be infinite in time, to be infinite--it just has to be infinite in something--yet it can have ALL KINDS of boundaries.
But that is still beside the valid point I made. "Compositional error" stands.
"If an infinite amount of time had passed before this moment in time, this moment in time would never have been reached." See Zeno's paradox; you're just spinning up a similar divisional fallacy.
How can you travel from point X (the universe's beginning) to point Y (now) if an infinite amount of points exist between X and Y?
The same way your fingers can travel an infinite amount of points, from from point X (your kitchen) to point Y (your keyboard), to attempt to refute my point.