Applying 21st Century mores to 18th Century thinking is an exercise in vanity.
The militia is bound to the right. The right is not bound to the militia.
If you want to follow the meaning of the 2nd amendment, the Militia is bound to the Government which should be neither right nor left, it just is.
Which is why there is a comma separating the militia from the people in the Second...
They knew that a government, a country, needed an armed force to defend itself and its citizens. At the same time, they had just broken free from a ruler and government they considered tyrannical and recognized that there is always the potential for a ruler or government to go bad, thus the right of the people to keep and bear Arms...
The militia is necessary, but that does not preclude the people being armed.
Some might argue that this applies only to the federal government and that state and local governments are free to infringe all they want... but that's another discussion...
Applying 21st Century mores to 18th Century thinking is an exercise in vanity.
The militia is bound to the right. The right is not bound to the militia.
If you want to follow the meaning of the 2nd amendment, the Militia is bound to the Government which should be neither right nor left, it just is.
Which is why there is a comma separating the militia from the people in the Second...
They knew that a government, a country, needed an armed force to defend itself and its citizens. At the same time, they had just broken free from a ruler and government they considered tyrannical and recognized that there is always the potential for a ruler or government to go bad, thus the right of the people to keep and bear Arms...
The militia is necessary, but that does not preclude the people being armed.
Some might argue that this applies only to the federal government and that state and local governments are free to infringe all they want... but that's another discussion...
I agree, the states certainly wanted an armed force to defend the nation. However, they did not agree as to what that armed force should be. North Carolina and other states believed a volunteer citizens militia was the answer. Other states believed the primary defense of the nation should be a standing army. Washington expressed his displeasure with the undisciplined conduct and poor battlefield performance of the militia. Washington blamed the Patriot reliance on the militia as the chief cause of his problems in the devastating loss of Long Island and Manhattan to the British. He and other leaders supported a standing army as oppose to using state militias to defend the nation.
The purpose of 2nd amendment was to insure that arms would be availability in the future so volunteers could armed themselves and serve in the militia. This satisfied supporters of the militias. With the 2nd amendment guaranteeing the availability of arms they believed there would be no need for a standing army. However, time would prove that Washington was correct. The performance of the volunteer militias could not match professional soldier on the battlefield.
Had their been little support in the states for the militias, it is unlikely that there would have been a 2nd amendment because there was little interest in owning guns other than to serve in militias. Also, wealthy businessmen and plantation owners were not keen about seeing guns in the hands of the poor and guns in the hands of slaves was terrifying so the 2nd amendment was not received well by these people.
So the poster admits:
The purpose of 2nd amendment was to insure that arms would be availability in the future so volunteers could armed themselves and serve in the militia.
The right exists and has a defined purpose. The case should be closed at this point. The future is not defined as the next 20 years, the next 100 years or the next 1000 years. It is simply a possibility that never ends. That is exactly what "future" means.
So this is progress.
But then the poster implies that these rights for an unstated reason, the people should have this right restricted or eliminated.
So I ask, what does the poster hope to achieve by the removal of this right?
I can assume that it is to reduce death rates.
If that were the case, and since most of these homicides occur in small geographic areas, wouldn't the poster, seeking this goal, be better served in demanding that these Metro areas get this problem under control using the same method that the Federal Government has been successfully using for decades?
Get your house in order by reducing these numbers or the Federal Government will reduce or eliminate Federal Funding to your City/State.
We know that the restrictions or elimination of either a type of gun, or all guns, will not accomplish his goal because his proposal is reliant on the criminals, who are responsible for these deaths in the first place, adhering to law.
His proposal is based on pure speculation. Change law so that these murders will be reduced. If the theory had merit we would not be wasting time discussing it in the first place because laws prohibiting murder and assault already exists, as do the killings. It's not at all clear how adding one, two, five hundred or ten thousand new laws will defer these killings when the standing punishments for violating the current laws can be Life in Prison or Death. Expecting a criminal to adhere to an additional law, when violation of current laws can draw a penalty of Death, is nothing but a pipe dream and only leaves those that would be disarmed at a greater risk.
So what is the posters motive in seeking the restriction or elimination of this right, when the only people who would possibly be affected are those that do not contribute to the problem in the first place?
It is an odd argument being made, but the admittance that the right exists is indeed progress.