At the expense of the value of the nation's currency. That's really not a good thing.
How so? There's more to inflation than simply increasing the supply of money.
A draconian solution to a very big problem. Then again, there wouldn't would have been that much inflation at all if there wasn't an abandonment of the Gold Standard.
If we really analyze this further, under the gold standard, gold mining was inherently inflationary as well. The capital invested and destroyed in adding to the net gold supply to maintain the nominal gold supply was patently ridiculous.
There is always someone benefiting when it comes to trade between two nations. America's trade deficit is more of a small silver lining in a sea of black clouds. The rewards doesn't necessarily outweigh the risk. You can't live off the charity of the rest of the world for very long.
Actually, the rest of the world is living off the charity of the United States. The foreign sector, such as China, is dependent on US credit creation. They also desire to save in the form of US financial assets. If the US lost reserve status, which I think is what you're getting at, nothing would change, except for some sectoral balances.
Now that is absolutely ridiculous...
Not really, but I can get into detail, I'm simply poking and prodding.
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Banks still cannot guarantee their funding. Never can, never will, especially when banks operate under a Fractional Reserve Banking System. Banking is not risk free. It never was and never will be. What people don't seem to understand is the moment you deposit your cash into a bank, this makes you a creditor of the bank. Being a creditor doesn't necessarily entitle anyone to their losses if and when their investments go south.
First of all, I’d like to preface this by stating that the money multiplier and fractional reserve banking concepts taught to econ undergraduates are largely incorrect.
Loans basically create deposits so to speak. We’re dealing with a balance sheet operation, which is quite different from any reserve effect that may occur as part of an interbank clearing mechanism. A bank gives a customer a loan; it then creates a deposit, which automatically increases its balance sheet. This type of expansion can move across different banks when the issuing and depositing bank are different issuing banks are different.
Private banks are in no way, shape or form constrained by the quantity of the reserves they have on hand. Banks do not lend out reserves in any capacity whatsoever. If we analyze even further, banks basically trade reserves between themselves on a commercial level, but this does not add or subtract from the total net volume of reserves in the overall banking system. The only thing that can change reserve volumes are what we call vertical transactions.
This whole notion that reserve balances are required to finance balance sheet expansion through adding excess reserves is simply false. A banks ability to increase its balance sheet isn’t dependent on fractional reserves or any type of reserve quantity. In other words, loans create deposits, which are then settled by reserves after the fact. The credit lending mechanism (the creation of bank liabilities) isn’t related to any reserve ratios of the bank.
It's not that the Federal Reserve couldn't. It just didn't. There was really nothing keeping the Fed from using that Gold to supply extra liquidity. Lots of Gold was pouring in from Great Britain, which recovered faster than the United States during this economic downturn.
Abandoning it did nothing but worsen the recovery. The Gold Standard wasn't really adopted again until World War II. The Fed released it's stranglehold on the money supply when the Government needed to fund the war effort. Most of the money created went straight into the war, but after the war was completed, the new money finally got the United States out of the Great Depression.
If you strip away the economic effects the war had on the economy, the Great Depression didn't end until 1947 or 1949. There was no reason why the Federal Reserve couldn't use the Gold and prevented all of this.
It was still the primary cause. The FED had drawn down the money supply when banks needed it most to provide liquidity. This resulted in massive bank failures.
Under a gold standard, the federal government was revenue-constrained because the Federal Reserve could only permit a certain amount of money in the overall economy based on its gold holdings and overall value of the currency. Simply put: the Federal Reserve could only allow so much gold in the economy relative to its gold holdings.
In the event the government needed to spend more, it would have to take money away from someone else in the economy, so the money supply would remain fixed so to speak. This is why the government was required to borrow and tax under a gold standard.
I wouldn’t mind discussing this further when I get home this evening.
