Obviously not. It's a mis-type.
And how do you know any inflation data is distorted? *What magic measurement do you use? *Or do you use a feeling in your loins?
I simply like at the percentage at which prices are increasing, pile them into a basket of goods and then compare them to how fast the CPI is increasing. The BLS has all of that data so its not hard for anyone who really wants to do the research to do it. Also you can compare the Big Mac Index percentage increase to that of the official CPI.
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The only explanation I can come with are the migrating factors from buying things online. For one, you are not paying taxes (not yet, anyway) and you and majority of the time you are purchasing items from wholesalers. Although there are services for this, I don't know too many people who really buy their necessities online.
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These changes don't accurately reflect what the prices are in the real economy. Certain consumer goods can be increasing steadily, but because the methodology has changed the CPI will show that these items are decreasing. Regardless of whether or not the price has increased within the past 10 years.
The alternative would be to go back to the way the CPI was computed in the 1970/1980's. The government would have to be more honest about how it devalues it's currency.*
Substitutions gives the false premise that prices aren't increasing, because consumers are choosing a substitute over their favorite items. If consumers are able to go with a cheaper substitute as oppose to their original brand, then according to the methodology this proves that prices aren't rising. The only problem with this rationale is that people are going with cheaper substitutes simply
because prices are rising.
Hedonic Adjustments makes items appear to be decreasing, despite the nominal price is of an item is rising. Lets say that you have a basic tool such as a hammer, and the nominal price of the hammer has increased 20% within the last 5 years. Hedonic Adjustments will determine the price fluctuations according to the 'quality' of the item compared to a different time period, instead of looking at price increases overtime. So if the quality of the hammer has increased by 15%, this means that according to the CPI the price of the hammer has only increased by 5%, instead of the 20% nominally.
This is done with a lot of electronics, cars, and other things. Although some of these items have not gone down, these items have price decreases in CPI reports.
You're kidding, right? The CPI hasn't had a negative year since the 1950's. There hasn't been any deflation in the economy. Falling prices use to be a good thing. It still is a good thing for most people. People like it when the things that they enjoy buying becomes less expensive. That's what creates demand.*
I don't have a desired inflation rate. I'm just saying that the similarities with what is going on between the 1970's and 2000 are too parallel for inflation to only be 2 - 3% a year. The printing of money is not only the cause of inflation. The printing of money is inflation.*
We have been kicking around how to measure capital stock for growth theory purposes for at least fifty years. *How much of America's capital stock is human capital, and how much is social overhead capital? *How do YOU measure them? *Or do you just ignore 80% of the capital stock? *
I don't see what measuring the development for books, YouTube videos and iTunes music has to do with this, but you generally cannot. There are a lot of things you cannot measure in the GDP, but some measurements make more sense than others. The final output of an item is what is measured in GDP. Although the research done to create the item is not added into GDP, R&D is still a business expense and it is still added in GDP already.
You think national income accounts are uniform now? *And you don't believe that other advanced economies are working to incorporate especially human capital into their growth models?
GDP is not totally uniform everywhere. There are certain goods and services available in one part of the world, which may be banned in another. Other than Personal Consumption Expenditures, measuring and calculating GDP is pretty much the same everywhere. And no I don't believe advance economies are trying to incorporation human capital into their models. Because it doesn't make sense.