ShackledNation said:
How so? How do you gain money from property? You have to actually do something with it. It doesn't just sit their and magically make money. You can rent it to someone (thus selling it for periods of time, thus providing a service) you can farm it and sell the food from the farm, you can start a business on it...exactly how does owning property result in unearned income?
You don't have to actually do something with property to make money, so long as you're able to prevent other people from using it without paying you. That's the beauty of property. In the case of land you can prevent people from farming unless they pay you. In the case of water, you can prevent them from drinking. Copyrights allow you to prevent people from singing your song.
Collecting money for the use of property is not a "service". At most, you could say the property itself provides a service. But even that's inaccurate. Since property is inanimate it can't really do anything by itself, it needs a user.
Sorry, but when I rent a house, the landlord is providing me a HUGE service. I could not afford to buy the entire house. Thanks to the landlord, I have affordable living. Also, if I want to move, I won't be stuck having to sell property. I can just move. I consider that to be a huge service. The same is true of the leasing of any property. It is much cheaper to rent property than to buy it. Say you are starting a business. If you are not sure it will work, would you rather buy property that costs 1 million dollars, or rent it out for a couple thousand a month instead? Obviously the latter. If it fails, you lose less money. There is less risk. If you do absolutely nothing with your land and do not rent it, it will rot away and lose value. If I bought a plot of dirt, I would not make money off of it because I owned it. I would have to
use it to make it valuable in any way.
Those are services providing by renting property. Your assumption that renting land provides no service is completely false. You also offered absolutely no reason behind the assumption, so I can't even understand where you are coming from.
All of those methods (profits, rent, capital gains) are examples of earned income. Not by silly government definition, but by reality.
Owners are workers. If they own something and do nothing with it, they make no money. The profit IS their salary! Calling part of their profit a salary in no way changes the means through which it was obtained. How can you not see this?
All salaries are derived from the profits of the company. What is leftover is for the owner of the company to keep for organizing the whole operation. You make this distinction between salary and profit that is false. They are only distinct for tax purposes.
Define unearned income.
I'm using the dictionary definition, which is income derived from property rather than work. I know you reject that definition. What would you use?
That definition is useless when discussing economics. It only means anything when talking about taxes, and that is why it is in the definition at all. Again, that definition is derived from the early cost or labor theory of value, according to which only labor produces or "earns" increased values. I already discussed in length why such theories are not correct.
I will leave the rest to read in this article. It talks all about the socialist and Georgist fallacies of unearned income.
Murray Rothbard and Henry George
Profits go to owners because they're owners, not because they organize anything. If I own IBM, and receive a dividend, is it for organizing IBM, or for owning it?
You do not get dividends simply for owning part of IBM. You get dividends because you providing IBM with money to use in their business. The condition is added that you only get the money if the business makes a profit, so you have to invest wisely. Your money is being used to produce and create profit, and if it does so successfully you get part of the profit. You are paid because you help facilitate production, not because you own the company.
In order to demand something, you have to have the means to pay. Your supply is your demand.
Strictly speaking, desire plus ability equals effective demand. Either way, coins alone are not demand, or effective demand. They may be necessary, but they're not sufficient.
First sentence yes. However, the act of holding coins
is the act of demanding them. By not exchanging them you are demanding them. If you did exchange them for something else, then you demand something else. Holding on to something constitutes
reservation demand. Getting rid of something in favor of something else constitutes
exchange demand. Both are important concepts to understand.
Keynes and Marx, never really grasped how this all works. Keynes went wrong when he thought he could aggregate everything, and that demand could grow the economy without supply (hence his call to spend spend spend). Marx thought value was determined by labor (hence his mischaracterization of profit as exploitation). But in order to criticize free markets, you have to understand them. Few critics actually do.