I see what you are saying, to some extent. For example - I think one can argue, rationally, that Jews are not a "culture" (they are a religion) without being anti-semitic.
I disagree. I have yet to see a rational objective definition of "culture" which could be universally applied but which would not also apply to the Jewish people. Thus people are rationalizing away Jewish rights to be treated the same as everyone else. Your own definition of "culture" is so elastic as to create a different culture based on a dialect difference of a single vocalization of a single consonant, and the slight differing of embroidery patterns on women's dresses. This, you say, qualifies as a unique culture, while all of the rich culture of the Jewish people is "just religion". Seriously? What would the objective measure be between a "religion" and a "culture"? What makes a language like Hebrew nothing but part of a religion, while a dialect difference denotes an entirely distinct culture?
When I pointed out what made Palestinians distinct - it was an answer to a question "what makes them a distinct people". Is religion a culture? Latin is the religious language of Christianity - does that make all Christians "a culture"? Arabic is the language of Islam - does that mean all Islam has the same culture - Albania, Chechnya, Saudi Arabia? I'm also not arguing that "Jewish" is not a "culture" (your argument convinced me that there are unifying cultural factors) nor am I minimizing it as you seek to do with the Palestinians. What I AM saying is that it is a
reasonable point of discussion and that opinions arguing one way or another
are not necessarily anti-semitic because the argument is reasonable.
The idea that the Jewish people have no culture is just game of rationalizing antisemitism. It begins with the idea that the Jewish people need to be considered differently, and then works out a "solution" to the problem. Rather than beginning with a rational, objective definition and then seeing if that applies to the Jewish people or not. Its nothing more than a convenient excuse to exclude Jewish people from rights other peoples hold.
I'm not arguing they have "no culture" - what I'm saying is it is perfectly reasonable to argue whether one culture unifies them all - or whether it's a religion unifying them...or both. It's a RATIONAL OBJECTIVE argument that doesn't imply antisemitism merely differing interpretations what what is a "culture". I
t also doesn't automatically exclude anyone from rights.
"Right of Return" can also be argued, the reason being it is based on events thousands of years ago that may or may not be accurately recorded and no other people makes the same claim to an ancient landscape. Those can be legitimate arguments without being dehumanizing.
Do you not see how that denies the history of the Jewish people? Do you hold other groups of people to that same standard? Are the First Nations peoples histories "accurately recorded" enough -- the Cree, the Salish, the Lakota, the Iroquois, the Cherokee? Is the Kurdish people's history "accurately recorded" enough? The Maori? The Catalans? The Aztecs and the Mayans? Is an "accurate recording" of history the measure by which we determine that people have or do not have existence as a culture; the right to be included in the group; to self-determination and the right to return to a homeland?
No. I really don't see that it denies them their history. Their history is THEIRS. And yes - FIRST NATIONS people's histories are not necessarily accurately recorded either. Nor is the New Testement history of Christianity. They are stories passed down through the generations. There is archaelogical evidence to support parts, partial evidence for others, and nothing for some and new understanding uncovered all the time. History then was not recorded with the same academic rigor as it is now. Does recognizing that mean "denying it"? The Hopi are a fascinating people, and they have a creation myth that reflects that of other people's destruction/recreation:
Creation Stories with four creations, destruction by flood, fire, etc....so...is this literally true? This history? Is Noah's flood, literally true? Well, maybe..kind of...if you realize the biblical world was a tiny place, and a flood would not have to be so massive to destroy it. That is not "denying" them their history, it's putting it into a realistic perspective. I don't understand your outrage.
Or is it the passage of time which disqualifies a group from the right of return? How much time? Ten years? A hundred? Two hundred? A thousand? Pick a number and then apply it consistently.
Then, surely the Palestinians have the right of return don't they?
But to answer your question, if there was an unlimited right of "return" - where would you draw the line. My ancestors came from Norway and Wales, among other places. Does that give me and my descendents an open ended right to return there? To claim ancestral lands? Genetic migration patterns are fascinating - I have never had mine plotted but other folks have...over the milliniums - at which point can they claim ancestral right of return...somewhere in Africa? What makes it a right? Before the Jews were there, there were other people....what about them? Based on your argument - much of America MUST cede it's territorial claims to the First Nations. So...where does this end?
Or is it the ancientness of the claim to the landscape which is the measure? Are Egyptians disqualified from claiming "peoplehood"; or self-determination because they've been around so long? Are people prevented from returning to Egypt because Egypt is so ancient?
People are prevented from "returning" to Egypt by Egypt's laws and immigration rules. You are also conflating things here. Criticizing "Right of Return" does not mean denying "peoplehood" or "self determination" - you are arguing apples and oranges.
Or is residence the measure? If you live there -- its yours. If you've been successfully displaced -- its not.
I don't see how this bears on "Right of Return"....but the answer is very very complicated and it applies to the Palestinian cause as well.
All of these arguments may or may not be valid. It depends on if you can claim them consistently. If you can not apply it consistently, check your antisemitism levels.
Or check your anti-Palestinian levels.
What I see as anti-semitism is most often expressed as a readiness to buy into conspiracy theories - Jews control the world, the banks, the media, the government...denying the holocaust, or blaming the Jews for what happened in the holocaust or other expulsions. When it comes to Israel - it gets much more complicated to pick out the anti-semitism from the anti-Israelism but I can see it in those that deny Jews are indiginous, or have a right to be there, as if there were no Jews before the 19th century.
Yes, I agree that you do not see the more subtle forms of antisemitism as they are disguised as anti-Israelism.
Or maybe not all "anti-semitism" IS "anti-semitism".
What I see as anti-Islamism are statements made that broad brush an entire religion that spans multiple cultures. For example, by taking religious text completely out of context. Using terms like taqqiya to claim that all Muslims lie. Claiming they are all potential terrorists or abbetters. Claiming that they don't speak out (despite multiple examples of them doing so). Politicians supporting "anti-sharia" legislation (which ignores the way religious law is used in the US in very specific ways); supporting curtailing their rights. Conflating the Palestinians with Hitler. Saying the Palestinians should all be expelled to Jordan.
Yeah, I'm with you on all that. Except no one is saying ALL Palestinians should be expelled to Jordan. Not that I can see.
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Really? That was Boston's first claim, though he amended it. But look at Indeependent, Rhodescholar, Phoenall, ....I strongly suspect they have NO desire to see Arab filth infesting Israel and Israeli occupied territories. ForeverYoung436 has repeatedly stated that a mass expulsion is going to happen.