You are claiming that Palestinians have inherent rights, while simultaneously claiming that the Jewish people can only have rights which are granted.
I have never said that.
Wow. Seriously?
The UN did not grant those rights to the Palestinians. It reaffirmed already existing rights. You need to read up. Israel is a different country with no defined territory.
Implication is that Israel/Jewish people have no existing rights (thus no inherent rights).
The UN states that the Palestinians, in Palestine, have these rights. There have been no similar statements for the Israelis.
Implication being that without any statements by the UN, the Israelis/Jewish people have no such rights (thus no inherent rights).
Do you have any specifying those rights for Israelis?
Implication being that without any specifications of rights for Israelis/Jewish people, they have no such rights (thus no inherent rights).
When did they become a legal people inside a defined territory?
Implication being that unless a people becomes a "legal people" (through some mysterious process you have declined to describe) within a defined territory, they have no rights (thus no inherent rights).
This is only this thread, and only in the past day or so. I haven't even touched other threads or done any detailed history.
Why don't you try to show me one response, one post, on one thread EVER where you supported clearly and unambiguously that the Jewish people have the same inherent, invioable rights that the Palestinians have.