Then tell us a time in hsitory when income inequality was uninvolved with a revolution of the people.
You will NOT find one
I'm quite certain in those cases from Tsar Nicholas being overthrown to the French American Revolution, you will find it corruption and oppression which are far greater driving forces than the fact that someone has more than them.
Let's look briefly at it.
The French Revolution. yes the nobility were obscenely rich. But how did they 'earn'? Taxation. It was oppressively high. Starvation was becoming rampant, and the inconsistent and weak leadership by King Louis XVI with his tin ear for people's concerns and making the lives better for his subjects earned him a trip to the guillotine.
The American Revolution. If you want to be picky, it was started by rich dudes against a king who was taxing them unfairly and ignoring their concerns. They were being affected by the policies of English Mercantilism that forced them out of lucrative trading partners in the rest of the world. This created a hardship and violation, in their minds of what it was to be a British citizen in a colony. So, income disparity? Not an issue. They were rich and inspired with the new theories of government being subject to the governed.
The Russian Revolution. Crippling poverty was the fuel for communists to come in and preach envy against a ruler who had a tin ear for their suffering, AND taxed them heavily. Then to top it off, started sending young men to die on the eastern front in WW1.
You are only looking at the fact that they IS income disparity and ignoring the reasons WHY they are poor and rich. Like an illness, a fever could be caused by many things, but if you don't understand the root cause of it, you can still die from it if left untreated with the proper medication.
I know this is above your paygrade Truthiepoo, but I don't post seriously to you for your benefit.
