GlassSteagall was no joke, we wouldn't have had a severe recession as we did with it in place.
Mr Hipeter, I am not trying to insult you in any way, but in truth, you don't appear to know what you are talking about.
For historical accuracy, there is no Glass-Steagal Act. In reality, it's the 1933 Banking Act. People call it the "Glass Steagal Act" because the sponsors of the 1933 Banking Act were Carter Glass, and Henry B. Steagall.
Ironically, the 1933 Banking Act contained several key provisions for FDIC and Federal Deposit Insurance, which people claim to be part of the New Deal.
The provision of the 1933 Banking Act, that people call the Glass-Steagal Act, is the provision for separation of Retail banks, Commercial bank, Investment Banks, and Insurance Companies. Investment, Retail, Commercial and Insurance, were prohibited from operating together.
The claim that these prohibitions would have prevented the melt down are just simply not true.
First, the rest of the world does not have these prohibitions, and most never did. Canada didn't, and never has. They have not had a problem.
Second, the vast majority of the banks that failed in the recent crash, would not have been covered under the Glass-Steagal prohibitions. Countrywide Financial would not. Bear Stearns would not. Indymac would not. The vast majority of the bank failures, had Glass Steagall been enforced, would have not been affected in any way.
Third, the majority of the 'fixes' that government pushed, were only allowed with Glass-Steagal repealed. Bank of America buying out Countrywide, would have been illegal under GSA. JP Morgan Chase buying Bear Stearns, would have been illegal under GSA.
So this idea that "repealing Glass Steagal Act caused everything" in just flat out bogus. If anything, getting rid of that regulation helped solve the crisis.
By any objective measure, the New Deal policies are what dragged out the recession, into the great depression.
How does paying people to destroy food, during a hunger crisis, result in great economic growth? If you look at the standard of living under the New Deal, and World War 2, the standard declined at best. There was no great economic growth.
Ah, I don't buy it. Most of the Canadian government programs existed before the crisis in the US every happened. Further, there was no sub-prime melt down in Canada, which would have caused the need for a bailout. No one can even point to a bank that was at risk of bankruptcy.
The basic argument I've read thus far, is that 'banks had taken advantage of money the government gave out..... thus they were bailed out'. Sorry, that's not true. If you provide a program today, to hand out money to people like me, I'm going to ask for your address and come get some cash. Doesn't mean you bailed me out... just means I was more than happy to take your money.
That doesn't change the point. Yes, if you tie bad investments to good investments, that doesn't make the bad investments good. If the Carpathia had reached the Titanic before she sank, and tied itself to the hull, that would not have kept the Titanic afloat, it would have just sank the Carpathia too.
Again, the problem wasn't derivatives. The problem was the sub-prime loans. If the sub-prime loans had not been sold to begin with, or had not been bundled into the derivatives, there would never have been a problem with derivatives.
And again.... it was government that pushed sub-prime loans, and it was government that pushed them to be bundled into derivatives. If you watched the video, Obama himself says the whole point of bundling those loans, was to get more investment. The government pushed this whole thing.
Yes, property values could dive without warning, even without sub-prime lending. But in this case, it was directly because of sub-prime loans that values went up, and it was directly because of sub-prime melt down, that they went down.
Just because X can happen without Y, doesn't mean X did happened without Y.
If they lose their jobs or fall into bankruptcy they can't, and if the value of their property dives, a previously easily repayable debt becomes impossible to pay. The banks got greedy, and actually went out of their way to encourage loans to people that could't afford them, but at the same time a lot of houses went under that were owned by people that re-mortgaged their house knowing they were in good financial state at the time. There is no way for a bank to truly prepare, it can only limit the fallout.
Yes, AFTER the bubble got started, banks found they could make risky loans, and if the buyer defaulted, they could get the house back, which had a higher value than when it was purchased. Thus the risky loan was considered very safe, because if the buyer paid back the loan, they win. If the buyer defaults, and they get back a house worth more than the original loan, they win.
It was a win-win for the banks.
But here's the problem.... that situation was only true AFTER the bubble got started.
What started the bubble? Answer? Government through Freddie Mac, encourage banks to make sub-prime loans that Freddie Mac would guarantee.
This was a win-win for the banks, because of government. If the buyer paid back, the bank wins. If the buyer defaults, Freddie Mac pays back, and the bank wins. Win-win for the bank BEFORE the bubble started.
Government started the bubble. Yes, the banks continued the bubble. But Government created the bubble to begin with.