rupol2000
Gold Member
- Aug 22, 2021
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- Banned
- #1
Yes, because there is nothing in federal law about the rights of perverts, so these decisions should be delegated to the state level, according to the 10th amendment. Therefore, the states can ban not only same-sex marriage, but the very existence of homosexuals in the state.
This does not contradict the 14th Amendment, because the 14th Amendment only deals with explicit rights, and does not prohibit passing laws that restrict implicit rights (something that is not prohibited, but can be prohibited at any time at any level of lawmaking).
This does not contradict the 14th Amendment, because the 14th Amendment only deals with explicit rights, and does not prohibit passing laws that restrict implicit rights (something that is not prohibited, but can be prohibited at any time at any level of lawmaking).