If marriage is about children- why aren't parents required to get married? 1
Why are married parents allowed to divorce? 2
Why are infertile people allowed to marry? 3
Instead of asking about 'shotgun weddings' which is not an actual institution but instead a father forcing his daughter into marriage- ask why our marriage laws have no actual connection to procreation. 4
1. The state is about marriage. And it is so for one reason, it balances the freedoms in the Constitution by enticing the proper arrangement for the raising of children by bestowing certain priveleges onto men/women who come together in the only possible arrangement where blood children to them will result. Marriage is a state incentive program, not a mandate. That's why it comes with certain rewards that non-qualifying applicants do not get. That's how incentives work.
2. See #1. The Constitution guarantees freedom. Each state is free to set its own standards for divorce. In cases where a man and a woman fight so much that it becomes harmful to the children in that home, the state allows divorce. Some states allow divorce for other reasons. But the child-protective interest of the state is involved in divorce as well.
3. Infertile men/women do not interfere with the basic and very limited qualifiers for marriage. They are a man and a woman. That does not tarnish the brass ring for the state incentive program/marriage perks. Their union, more than being infertile, could bring adopted kids into the fray where the children would see the daily interaction between "man" and 'woman" and find role modeling there and a sense of self reflection. We've seen what happens when sterile gay couples come together in this regard and his name is Thomas Lobel: Thomas Lobel had no adult male role model in his home. No man "as father". So his confusion is to be expected and anticipated..
Boy Drugged By Lesbian Parents To Be A Girl US Message Board - Political Discussion Forum We would natually expect that any boy of a single mother would have struggles with coming to manhood. And in fact statistics bear this out.
4. The marriage laws have no connection to procreation because of Constitutional provisions for freedom and liberty of choice. The state, therefore, not being Red China or some other communist dictatorship that tells people what they will do down to the minutia of their most private lives, is limited only to being able to set incentives, brass rings for what it (We all) want for our children. Remember the liberal mantra "It takes a villiage"? Well, the villiage has decided to set incentives for its collective good via the formative years of children raised within its borders to only include a parenting situation for those children that is man/woman. The villiage does this for the Thomas Lobel reason and also because it wants the most likely scenario where the two blood parents of the children are in the home with them as parents. Many other situations exist for kids of course. But they are all inferior to the psychological benefits of blood parents. So the state picks the best scenario, the one most likely to result in well-rounded, mentally well children. And that scenario is (at least until the APA via CQR "audits" the Mt. Everest of data in support) man/woman.
The state has no way of knowing that men or women are sterile or even caring if they are. Children could wind up in any married home. They could even wind up in the home of two elderly people getting married for the first time as "grandkids". The important thing is that the basic structure that insures blood parent/blood offspring most of the time is preserved. Any man and woman marrying does not destroy that construct at all. Gays do. Because with 100% certainty, 100% of the time any children in that home will A. Be missing one of their blood parents and B. Be missing the complimentary gender-as-role-model. And that has already produced deleterious effects as we've seen with Thomas Lobel.