In 1948 The Palestinians declared independence on their own land inside their own international borders.
Let me know when Israel does that.
Oh, give me a break. The 1948 declaration of independence by the All-Palestine government was a short-lived, impotent, puppet for Egypt which had no sovereignty over any territory and didn't last out the year they were "declared". You can "declare" anything you want, but if you don't, in fact, control any territory, the declaration is meaningless. And so much more so when you have NO LEGAL RIGHT to the territory upon which you "declare".
Once again, the criteria for a State (declarative theory) are:
1. a defined territory (and please, it doesn't have to be "perfectly" defined. Territorial disputes are normal and there are dozens of examples throughout the world, and these do not impair sovereignty of a State. And anything you use which can support the "defined territory" of Palestine can equally and MORE define the territory of Israel. And further, the State has to demonstrate some sort of sovereignty over said territory.)
2. a permanent population
3. a government (no government = no State. Good-bye to your claims that the All-Palestine Government remains a valid "declaration".
4. the capacity to enter into relations with other states.
Between 1948 and the mid-1990s, definitively, and right up until the present day, arguably, "Palestine" did not meet that criteria. Israel did.
We all know that Israel declared independence and we all know what her international borders are according to international law. Israel's declaration of independence and Israel's existence as a State is
not in dispute. And trying to dispute it makes you look foolish.