DavidS
Anti-Tea Party Member
- Thread starter
- #121
Is it OK if I ask as non-confrontational as possible why does Israel have the right to exist?
After all, it's a creation of British zionists colonialists who have never had any claim, right, or title to the land.
Israel is an artificial creation that is populated by european jews who also never had any claim, right, or title to the land.
Here's what's missing in your argument ...
Foreign Office,
November 2nd, 1917.
Dear Lord Rothschild,
I have much pleasure in conveying to you, on behalf of His Majesty's Government, the following declaration of sympathy with Jewish Zionist aspirations which has been submitted to, and approved by, the Cabinet:
"His Majesty's Government view with favour the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people, and will use their best endeavours to facilitate the achievement of this object, it being clearly understood that nothing shall be done which may prejudice the civil and religious rights of existing non-Jewish communities in Palestine, or the rights and political status enjoyed by Jews in any other country".
I should be grateful if you would bring this declaration to the knowledge of the Zionist Federation.
Yours sincerely
Arthur James Balfour
Surely this answers your question and demonstrates that Israel is an artificial nation created by colonialist declaration, not history.
It's interesting indeed that Jews would be asking this question when they will scream to high heaven if someone asks why Israel has a right to exist.
Here's the flaw in your argument:
Whether you call it Palestine or Israel, the letter you point out was the British recognizing that the land was meant for the Jews and not the Arab Muslims.
You know your history. You know that the Kingdom of Israel existed for thousands of years before the Romans re-named the land Palestine. All the UN did was re-name Jewish Palestine into Israel.
So let me re-define my question:
Why does an Arab-Muslim Palestine have a right to exist?