If you call them "torture" and believe them to be torture, then you are wrong. If you do not consider it torture, and others do, then it comes down to a legal ruling, does it not?
The argument is sound. You just have no answer for it.
But what if I knowingly create a new method of torture and used it, then later a court rules it was torture.
Does that mean that I can not be accused of torture. Also, how detailed must a troture method be in order to say that some one used a mthod. For instance, if The Spanish cure is to pour water on the face, what If I had the person lie on their torso and sprayed a high jet stream of waters upwards into the victims face. Would that be the Spanish Cure as well?
And you talk about semantics.....
Word games. Got to love them. If you KNOWING create a method of torture, and believe it to be torture, and everyone else believes it to be torture, then it doesn't need to be ruled on by a court. It already has.
If however, you use a means of coersion not defined as torture, and is borderline, I most certainly would not condemn you for torture just because a court later ruled it is unlawful to use.
And yeah, I'm talking about semantics. Stop trying to play them with me.
First, I said I knowingly create a torture method. No one else may realize it is torture until later. If I unknowingly did it, ignorance before the law does not protect me. Second. How about if I modified a torture technique--is that a form of torture? How close to a torture method does one needs to be in order for it to be called torture without a court?
Finally, I did not include everyone else because the post did not include.
There are definitions for torture, you have to make the decision is it or is it not. and why would you use it over another method.