Timeline-WWII In Europe

President Roosevelt was in his third term and the U.S. had little or no intelligence network. The Brits were shocked to learn that the U.S. was virtually isolated from European and Asian and Nazi intelligence. A best seller titled "In the Garden of the Beasts" is based on the U.S. Ambassador to Germany during the pre-war years. The FDR administration didn't seem interested in Nazi atrocities even when Americans became the victims. All the FDR administration seemed interested is trying to convince the Hitler regime to pay their WW1 debits and that wasn't going to happen. Meanwhile FDR "intelligence" experts claimed that the Japanese were nearsighted little people who were incapable of building a plane much less flying one. The criminal lack of intelligence led to the debacle of Pearl Harbor but FDR's legendary eloquence conned the public.
 
President Roosevelt was in his third term and the U.S. had little or no intelligence network. The Brits were shocked to learn that the U.S. was virtually isolated from European and Asian and Nazi intelligence. A best seller titled "In the Garden of the Beasts" is based on the U.S. Ambassador to Germany during the pre-war years. The FDR administration didn't seem interested in Nazi atrocities even when Americans became the victims. All the FDR administration seemed interested is trying to convince the Hitler regime to pay their WW1 debits and that wasn't going to happen. Meanwhile FDR "intelligence" experts claimed that the Japanese were nearsighted little people who were incapable of building a plane much less flying one. The criminal lack of intelligence led to the debacle of Pearl Harbor but FDR's legendary eloquence conned the public.
Why then did the American people vote for FDR four times and why did the historians name FDR as America's best president? As for the airplanes, we knew about all their
aircraft including the Zero.
 
President Roosevelt was in his third term and the U.S. had little or no intelligence network. The Brits were shocked to learn that the U.S. was virtually isolated from European and Asian and Nazi intelligence. A best seller titled "In the Garden of the Beasts" is based on the U.S. Ambassador to Germany during the pre-war years. The FDR administration didn't seem interested in Nazi atrocities even when Americans became the victims. All the FDR administration seemed interested is trying to convince the Hitler regime to pay their WW1 debits and that wasn't going to happen. Meanwhile FDR "intelligence" experts claimed that the Japanese were nearsighted little people who were incapable of building a plane much less flying one. The criminal lack of intelligence led to the debacle of Pearl Harbor but FDR's legendary eloquence conned the public.
Why then did the American people vote for FDR four times and why did the historians name FDR as America's best president? As for the airplanes, we knew about all their
aircraft including the Zero.
 
Well, some very important things are not mentioned here.

(1)
1938 Britain and Germany sign non-agression pact as well as France and Germany.
They did it the next day after they had allowed Germany to invade Sudetenland region of Czech.
Poland was acting together with Nazi Germany and the same day they occupied Cieszyn Sylesia region of Czech.

Undoubtedly that date should be called a first day of WW2.

The USSR, GB and France had an agreement with Czech according to it they had to protect Czech from agression. But GB and France decided not to fulfill their obligations. The USSR was still ready to help Czech and Poland announced that they would declare a war if Soviet army tries to move to Czech.

So here is the real face of hypocritical western diplomacy. And we all know what was a result of it.

(2)
If GB or US act, they “liberate” a territory but if USSR - they “occupy”.
Very interesting accents!

(3)
When some battle is mentioned there is no any statistics.
Why not to show number of killed Germans and Russians in Stalingrad, why not to tell how many troops and vehicles took part from both sides? And the same regarding to other battles.
If those figures were shown everyone could see that it was the USSR who had made the main job in ww2. But this information is supposed to be hidden and most people in USAEU are sure it was the USA to win that war.

(4)
Air strikes over Dresden, Tokyo, Hiroshima, Nagasaki must be mentioned as war crimes!
Thousands of civilians were killed without real need.
It is never mentioned and it is disgusting.
 
(1)
1938 Britain and Germany sign non-agression pact as well as France and Germany.
They did it the next day after they had allowed Germany to invade Sudetenland region of Czech.
Poland was acting together with Nazi Germany and the same day they occupied Cieszyn Sylesia region of Czech.

Undoubtedly that date should be called a first day of WW2.


1.) Can you prove that Poland acted with, as opposed to even against Nazi Germany by invading Cieszyn Silesia (Zaolzie) ?
Might I point out this region was majority Polish, and Czechs stole it from Poland just after WW1.

2.) Soviets were mass-murdering ethnic Poles in 1937 - 1938 in the Polish Operation of the NKVD.
Why isn't this considered the beginning of WW2?

3.) Nazis had been given huge amount of resources by Soviets in the German - Soviet Credit Agreement, and the German - Soviet Commercial Agreement.
Why wasn't the Soviet Union invaded by the West too?
 
President Roosevelt was in his third term and the U.S. had little or no intelligence network. The Brits were shocked to learn that the U.S. was virtually isolated from European and Asian and Nazi intelligence. A best seller titled "In the Garden of the Beasts" is based on the U.S. Ambassador to Germany during the pre-war years. The FDR administration didn't seem interested in Nazi atrocities even when Americans became the victims. All the FDR administration seemed interested is trying to convince the Hitler regime to pay their WW1 debits and that wasn't going to happen. Meanwhile FDR "intelligence" experts claimed that the Japanese were nearsighted little people who were incapable of building a plane much less flying one. The criminal lack of intelligence led to the debacle of Pearl Harbor but FDR's legendary eloquence conned the public.

Pearl Harbor has never made sense, even to its contemporary Japanese leadership. That is when Hiro Hito's best generals have accepted that Japan lost the war. That is even before the USA joined in.

Even Manchuria couldn't provide enough resources to Japan to win against the USA, Japan needed the entire Asia, and the Japanese generals knew this. M

Therefore it looks more likely, and logical, that Pearl Harbor was a USA insider job.
 
As for FDR's intelligence organization one might read "Roosevelt's Secret War" by Joseph Persico.
 
(1)
1938 Britain and Germany sign non-agression pact as well as France and Germany.
They did it the next day after they had allowed Germany to invade Sudetenland region of Czech.
Poland was acting together with Nazi Germany and the same day they occupied Cieszyn Sylesia region of Czech.

Undoubtedly that date should be called a first day of WW2.


1.) Can you prove that Poland acted with, as opposed to even against Nazi Germany by invading Cieszyn Silesia (Zaolzie) ?
Might I point out this region was majority Polish, and Czechs stole it from Poland just after WW1.

Fact is that Poland occupied Ciezyn Sylesia the same day as Nazi Germany occupied Sudetenland.
And the reason of those occupation was the same - there were about 80% of germans living in Sudetenland and there were many polish in Sylesia.
By the way I wish to pay your attention that Poland also occupied Vilnus and region around it before Sylesia, same time as Germany took Austria.
Poland, Germany and Italy were the only countries who occupied any terriotories between WW1 and WW2.

It is silly for you to mention results of WW1. As a result of that war Poland appeared as a state...until WW1 Poland was part of Russian Empire. So what czech occupation of polish lands can you talk about?

Would you like me mention polish agression against the USSR in 1919-21s? Polish occupation of western Ukraine, Belarus and Lituania...

Poland is the most aggresive and abitious state in Europe. A very rare example of national psychological problem - complex of inferiority...you all try to show other nations how great you are though those days had passed 4...maybe 3 centuries ago.

2.) Soviets were mass-murdering ethnic Poles in 1937 - 1938 in the Polish Operation of the NKVD.
Why isn't this considered the beginning of WW2?

In 1937-1938 Stalin fought against enemies - the USSR was surrounded by aggressive neighbours and a lot od spies were in Russia. He didn't fought against polish but against all foreigners who were suspected in espionage. Yes thousands were arested and some were executed...polish among them.
But absolutely the same was done by other governments in that time. Let's remind anti-japanese hysteria in the USA in 40s, for example, when civil famalies were placed into special camps without any reason but for their beeing japanes - not conc.camps like in nazi Germany or South Afrika by Brits but very much alike.

3.) Nazis had been given huge amount of resources by Soviets in the German - Soviet Credit Agreement, and the German - Soviet Commercial Agreement.
Why wasn't the Soviet Union invaded by the West too?
Nazis had been given huge amount of resources by everyone! What about the USA who supplied them until 1943? Directly or through Spain...
Poland had non-aggression pact with Germany since 1934 actual until 1944.
GB and France had non-aggression pact with Germany since 1938.
The USSR had it since 1939.

And please keep in mind the situation in the USSR by that time - agreecultural state after WW1 (loss of huge territories), revolution (change of government and political system beeng built without finance and educated elite), civil war 1918-1922, foreign intervention (Poland, USA, GB, Czech, Japan...). The USSR surrounded by enemies had to be industrialized else it would never have survived. That was the reason of super-strict policy inside the country - fight against anti-governmental activities, against any national resistance, strict control of agreecultural production which lead to terrble hunger in 30s...
And why USSR didn't have to cooperate to Germany? If other countries agreed for cooperating with the USSR there would probably wasn't such relations of the USSR and Germany.
But nevertheless the USSR was honest in its foreign relations - we were ready to fulfil agreement and to protect Czech, we did not sign pact to Germany until all western countries had done it. You all wanted Hitler to destroy USSR and pushed him to the east but did it in his own way...and after Europe was his he didn't stop, went east and died.

You know, my polish friend - to be great nation and to say you're a great nation is very different. History shows what is the real sooner or later.
 
(1)
1938 Britain and Germany sign non-agression pact as well as France and Germany.
They did it the next day after they had allowed Germany to invade Sudetenland region of Czech.
Poland was acting together with Nazi Germany and the same day they occupied Cieszyn Sylesia region of Czech.

Undoubtedly that date should be called a first day of WW2.


1.) Can you prove that Poland acted with, as opposed to even against Nazi Germany by invading Cieszyn Silesia (Zaolzie) ?
Might I point out this region was majority Polish, and Czechs stole it from Poland just after WW1.

Fact is that Poland occupied Ciezyn Sylesia the same day as Nazi Germany occupied Sudetenland.
And the reason of those occupation was the same - there were about 80% of germans living in Sudetenland and there were many polish in Sylesia.
By the way I wish to pay your attention that Poland also occupied Vilnus and region around it before Sylesia, same time as Germany took Austria.
Poland, Germany and Italy were the only countries who occupied any terriotories between WW1 and WW2.

It is silly for you to mention results of WW1. As a result of that war Poland appeared as a state...until WW1 Poland was part of Russian Empire. So what czech occupation of polish lands can you talk about?

Would you like me mention polish agression against the USSR in 1919-21s? Polish occupation of western Ukraine, Belarus and Lituania...

Poland is the most aggresive and abitious state in Europe. A very rare example of national psychological problem - complex of inferiority...you all try to show other nations how great you are though those days had passed 4...maybe 3 centuries ago.

2.) Soviets were mass-murdering ethnic Poles in 1937 - 1938 in the Polish Operation of the NKVD.
Why isn't this considered the beginning of WW2?

In 1937-1938 Stalin fought against enemies - the USSR was surrounded by aggressive neighbours and a lot od spies were in Russia. He didn't fought against polish but against all foreigners who were suspected in espionage. Yes thousands were arested and some were executed...polish among them.
But absolutely the same was done by other governments in that time. Let's remind anti-japanese hysteria in the USA in 40s, for example, when civil famalies were placed into special camps without any reason but for their beeing japanes - not conc.camps like in nazi Germany or South Afrika by Brits but very much alike.

3.) Nazis had been given huge amount of resources by Soviets in the German - Soviet Credit Agreement, and the German - Soviet Commercial Agreement.
Why wasn't the Soviet Union invaded by the West too?
Nazis had been given huge amount of resources by everyone! What about the USA who supplied them until 1943? Directly or through Spain...
Poland had non-aggression pact with Germany since 1934 actual until 1944.
GB and France had non-aggression pact with Germany since 1938.
The USSR had it since 1939.

And please keep in mind the situation in the USSR by that time - agreecultural state after WW1 (loss of huge territories), revolution (change of government and political system beeng built without finance and educated elite), civil war 1918-1922, foreign intervention (Poland, USA, GB, Czech, Japan...). The USSR surrounded by enemies had to be industrialized else it would never have survived. That was the reason of super-strict policy inside the country - fight against anti-governmental activities, against any national resistance, strict control of agreecultural production which lead to terrble hunger in 30s...
And why USSR didn't have to cooperate to Germany? If other countries agreed for cooperating with the USSR there would probably wasn't such relations of the USSR and Germany.
But nevertheless the USSR was honest in its foreign relations - we were ready to fulfil agreement and to protect Czech, we did not sign pact to Germany until all western countries had done it. You all wanted Hitler to destroy USSR and pushed him to the east but did it in his own way...and after Europe was his he didn't stop, went east and died.

You know, my polish friend - to be great nation and to say you're a great nation is very different. History shows what is the real sooner or later.

You wish to talk about Wilno (Vilnius) being occupied?
In the 1897 census it was only 2% Lithuanian.

You call Poland the most aggressive state in Europe?
WTF?
Haha, yeah it's not Germans who killed so many millions in 2 World Wars, it must have been Poles.

Ever hear of the Soviet Westward Offensive?
That was the prelude to the Polish - Soviet war.

No matter what you suggest, Soviets were the main suppliers of the Nazi German war effort.

Oh okay, the Polish Operation of the NKVD must not have been a targeted genocide of Poles, but rather enemies of the state... All 100,000 + of those Poles killed by bullets.
 
(1)
1938 Britain and Germany sign non-agression pact as well as France and Germany.
They did it the next day after they had allowed Germany to invade Sudetenland region of Czech.
Poland was acting together with Nazi Germany and the same day they occupied Cieszyn Sylesia region of Czech.

Undoubtedly that date should be called a first day of WW2.


1.) Can you prove that Poland acted with, as opposed to even against Nazi Germany by invading Cieszyn Silesia (Zaolzie) ?
Might I point out this region was majority Polish, and Czechs stole it from Poland just after WW1.

Fact is that Poland occupied Ciezyn Sylesia the same day as Nazi Germany occupied Sudetenland.
And the reason of those occupation was the same - there were about 80% of germans living in Sudetenland and there were many polish in Sylesia.
By the way I wish to pay your attention that Poland also occupied Vilnus and region around it before Sylesia, same time as Germany took Austria.
Poland, Germany and Italy were the only countries who occupied any terriotories between WW1 and WW2.

It is silly for you to mention results of WW1. As a result of that war Poland appeared as a state...until WW1 Poland was part of Russian Empire. So what czech occupation of polish lands can you talk about?

Would you like me mention polish agression against the USSR in 1919-21s? Polish occupation of western Ukraine, Belarus and Lituania...

Poland is the most aggresive and abitious state in Europe. A very rare example of national psychological problem - complex of inferiority...you all try to show other nations how great you are though those days had passed 4...maybe 3 centuries ago.

2.) Soviets were mass-murdering ethnic Poles in 1937 - 1938 in the Polish Operation of the NKVD.
Why isn't this considered the beginning of WW2?

In 1937-1938 Stalin fought against enemies - the USSR was surrounded by aggressive neighbours and a lot od spies were in Russia. He didn't fought against polish but against all foreigners who were suspected in espionage. Yes thousands were arested and some were executed...polish among them.
But absolutely the same was done by other governments in that time. Let's remind anti-japanese hysteria in the USA in 40s, for example, when civil famalies were placed into special camps without any reason but for their beeing japanes - not conc.camps like in nazi Germany or South Afrika by Brits but very much alike.

3.) Nazis had been given huge amount of resources by Soviets in the German - Soviet Credit Agreement, and the German - Soviet Commercial Agreement.
Why wasn't the Soviet Union invaded by the West too?
You all wanted Hitler to destroy USSR and pushed him to the east but did it in his own way...and after Europe was his he didn't stop, went east and died.

Oh yeah?
Is that why Poland rejected the invitation to the Nazi anti-Comintern Pact against the Soviet Union?
 
Looking for who is the main to be blamed in Hitler's arising we would come to The Treaty of Versailles

Poland had tight cooperation to nazi Germany until September 1939 as well as all other countries in Europe and the USSR so all your words worth not so much.

For example how do you like this photo
1431643569_2.jpg

November 1938. Poland, Polish Independance day.
Marshal Edward Rydz-Śmigły, also called Edward Śmigły-Rydz, Polish politician, statesman, Marshal of Poland and Commander-in-Chief of Poland's armed forces
and german attache colonel Boguslav von Studniz.
Parade of polish army a month after Sylesia occupation.
 
Last edited:
President Roosevelt was in his third term and the U.S. had little or no intelligence network. The Brits were shocked to learn that the U.S. was virtually isolated from European and Asian and Nazi intelligence. A best seller titled "In the Garden of the Beasts" is based on the U.S. Ambassador to Germany during the pre-war years. The FDR administration didn't seem interested in Nazi atrocities even when Americans became the victims. All the FDR administration seemed interested is trying to convince the Hitler regime to pay their WW1 debits and that wasn't going to happen. Meanwhile FDR "intelligence" experts claimed that the Japanese were nearsighted little people who were incapable of building a plane much less flying one. The criminal lack of intelligence led to the debacle of Pearl Harbor but FDR's legendary eloquence conned the public.
Why then did the American people vote for FDR four times and why did the historians name FDR as America's best president? As for the airplanes, we knew about all their
aircraft including the Zero.

Yes, because it was based on an American model. We also knew how long they could maintain a war, since we were selling them the scrap metal and most of their oil. We knew enough for FDR to focus on the war in Europe first as well, and after Midway we knew we could definitely focus on Europe. We got lucky in the Pacific and ended it a couple of years earlier than predicted, due to some major stupidity on the part of the Japanese military leadership, who became too convinced of their own propaganda and thought they really were superior warriors and intellects. It must have really sucked for the Japs and Nazi 'Master Races' to find themselves getting steamrollered over by all of those worthless defective losers here in America in just a couple of years. Obviously Saddam and the rest of the planet were still convinced we were weaklings, up until the Iraqi Army mostly vanished in a few hours in the early 1990's. Maybe North Korea will soon be vanishing as well, hopefully.
 
Last edited:
As for FDR's intelligence organization one might read "Roosevelt's Secret War" by Joseph Persico.

Couldn't get funding before the war for an extensive new intelligence agency, so we still relied on the 'good old boy' system of rich kid ambassadors, overseas business people, and bankers for intelligence gathering. It worked just fine on some levels, but of course was inadequate and too small. That changed pretty quickly, and we had help with that from French and British intelligence agencies, so we got up to speed relatively quickly, certainly by the early 1960's, anyway.
 
President Roosevelt was in his third term and the U.S. had little or no intelligence network. The Brits were shocked to learn that the U.S. was virtually isolated from European and Asian and Nazi intelligence. A best seller titled "In the Garden of the Beasts" is based on the U.S. Ambassador to Germany during the pre-war years. The FDR administration didn't seem interested in Nazi atrocities even when Americans became the victims. All the FDR administration seemed interested is trying to convince the Hitler regime to pay their WW1 debits and that wasn't going to happen. Meanwhile FDR "intelligence" experts claimed that the Japanese were nearsighted little people who were incapable of building a plane much less flying one. The criminal lack of intelligence led to the debacle of Pearl Harbor but FDR's legendary eloquence conned the public.
Why then did the American people vote for FDR four times and why did the historians name FDR as America's best president? As for the airplanes, we knew about all their
aircraft including the Zero.
As for "best" that is usually a two way tie between Lincoln and FDR.
 
Looking for who is the main to be blamed in Hitler's arising we would come to The Treaty of Versailles

Poland had tight cooperation to nazi Germany until September 1939 as well as all other countries in Europe and the USSR so all your words worth not so much.

For example how do you like this photo
1431643569_2.jpg

November 1938. Poland, Polish Independance day.
Marshal Edward Rydz-Śmigły, also called Edward Śmigły-Rydz, Polish politician, statesman, Marshal of Poland and Commander-in-Chief of Poland's armed forces
and german attache colonel Boguslav von Studniz.
Parade of polish army a month after Sylesia occupation.
Hitler was an insane genius.

He made the most of his situation.

Then he made the worst of it.

At his height when he was in Paris the Germans worshipped him.

His first fatal blunder was attacking Russia.

His second was making a treaty with Japan.

His third was declaring war on the USA.

After that he was just a madman -- not a genius anymore.

Hitler is the main cause of Hitler's rise. He would have probably taken over German with our without Versailles.
 
(1)
1938 Britain and Germany sign non-agression pact as well as France and Germany.
They did it the next day after they had allowed Germany to invade Sudetenland region of Czech.
Poland was acting together with Nazi Germany and the same day they occupied Cieszyn Sylesia region of Czech.

Undoubtedly that date should be called a first day of WW2.


1.) Can you prove that Poland acted with, as opposed to even against Nazi Germany by invading Cieszyn Silesia (Zaolzie) ?
Might I point out this region was majority Polish, and Czechs stole it from Poland just after WW1.

Fact is that Poland occupied Ciezyn Sylesia the same day as Nazi Germany occupied Sudetenland.
And the reason of those occupation was the same - there were about 80% of germans living in Sudetenland and there were many polish in Sylesia.
By the way I wish to pay your attention that Poland also occupied Vilnus and region around it before Sylesia, same time as Germany took Austria.
Poland, Germany and Italy were the only countries who occupied any terriotories between WW1 and WW2.

It is silly for you to mention results of WW1. As a result of that war Poland appeared as a state...until WW1 Poland was part of Russian Empire. So what czech occupation of polish lands can you talk about?

Would you like me mention polish agression against the USSR in 1919-21s? Polish occupation of western Ukraine, Belarus and Lituania...

Poland is the most aggresive and abitious state in Europe. A very rare example of national psychological problem - complex of inferiority...you all try to show other nations how great you are though those days had passed 4...maybe 3 centuries ago.

2.) Soviets were mass-murdering ethnic Poles in 1937 - 1938 in the Polish Operation of the NKVD.
Why isn't this considered the beginning of WW2?

In 1937-1938 Stalin fought against enemies - the USSR was surrounded by aggressive neighbours and a lot od spies were in Russia. He didn't fought against polish but against all foreigners who were suspected in espionage. Yes thousands were arested and some were executed...polish among them.
But absolutely the same was done by other governments in that time. Let's remind anti-japanese hysteria in the USA in 40s, for example, when civil famalies were placed into special camps without any reason but for their beeing japanes - not conc.camps like in nazi Germany or South Afrika by Brits but very much alike.

3.) Nazis had been given huge amount of resources by Soviets in the German - Soviet Credit Agreement, and the German - Soviet Commercial Agreement.
Why wasn't the Soviet Union invaded by the West too?
Nazis had been given huge amount of resources by everyone! What about the USA who supplied them until 1943? Directly or through Spain...
Poland had non-aggression pact with Germany since 1934 actual until 1944.
GB and France had non-aggression pact with Germany since 1938.
The USSR had it since 1939.

And please keep in mind the situation in the USSR by that time - agreecultural state after WW1 (loss of huge territories), revolution (change of government and political system beeng built without finance and educated elite), civil war 1918-1922, foreign intervention (Poland, USA, GB, Czech, Japan...). The USSR surrounded by enemies had to be industrialized else it would never have survived. That was the reason of super-strict policy inside the country - fight against anti-governmental activities, against any national resistance, strict control of agreecultural production which lead to terrble hunger in 30s...
And why USSR didn't have to cooperate to Germany? If other countries agreed for cooperating with the USSR there would probably wasn't such relations of the USSR and Germany.
But nevertheless the USSR was honest in its foreign relations - we were ready to fulfil agreement and to protect Czech, we did not sign pact to Germany until all western countries had done it. You all wanted Hitler to destroy USSR and pushed him to the east but did it in his own way...and after Europe was his he didn't stop, went east and died.

You know, my polish friend - to be great nation and to say you're a great nation is very different. History shows what is the real sooner or later.
They (the teachers) are not allowed to teach us this in the USA.

It is squelched by The John Birch Society here.
 
Looking for who is the main to be blamed in Hitler's arising we would come to The Treaty of Versailles

Poland had tight cooperation to nazi Germany until September 1939 as well as all other countries in Europe and the USSR so all your words worth not so much.

For example how do you like this photo
1431643569_2.jpg

November 1938. Poland, Polish Independance day.
Marshal Edward Rydz-Śmigły, also called Edward Śmigły-Rydz, Polish politician, statesman, Marshal of Poland and Commander-in-Chief of Poland's armed forces
and german attache colonel Boguslav von Studniz.
Parade of polish army a month after Sylesia occupation.

I think Germany should have been Partitioned after WW1, that would have stopped Hitler if he had no nation to go out of.
 
President Roosevelt was in his third term and the U.S. had little or no intelligence network. The Brits were shocked to learn that the U.S. was virtually isolated from European and Asian and Nazi intelligence. A best seller titled "In the Garden of the Beasts" is based on the U.S. Ambassador to Germany during the pre-war years. The FDR administration didn't seem interested in Nazi atrocities even when Americans became the victims. All the FDR administration seemed interested is trying to convince the Hitler regime to pay their WW1 debits and that wasn't going to happen. Meanwhile FDR "intelligence" experts claimed that the Japanese were nearsighted little people who were incapable of building a plane much less flying one. The criminal lack of intelligence led to the debacle of Pearl Harbor but FDR's legendary eloquence conned the public.
Why then did the American people vote for FDR four times and why did the historians name FDR as America's best president? As for the airplanes, we knew about all their
aircraft including the Zero.




Saddam Hussein was re-elected many times.
 

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