Lol you don't know what youa re reading - Mueller is talking about a demanding standard, not that it's a standard that can't be met.
Mueller states specifically:
the absence of that evidence affects the analysis of the President’s intent and requires consideration of other possible motives for his conduct."
If other motives must be considered, how can there be a concrete showing that a person acted with an intent to obtain an improper advantage for himself or someone else, inconsistent with official duty and the rights of others?
Where in the report does Mueller provide a concrete illustration that Trump acted with an intent to obtain an improper advantage for himself or someone else, inconsistent with official duty and the rights of others?
How is he wrong and how are you right?