The Evidence Supporting Prop 8 As Law In California Becomes Overwhelming

Not in the least. Last year SSCM won at the ballot in all for general election states.

Other states are likely to join the passed by ballot group in 2014 including Oregon, Michigan, and Colorado. Remember it doesn't take (in the grand scheme of things) that many signatures to get something on the ballot - in Colorado it's only 86,105. Laws that were passed based on a 50%+1 majority can be repealed based on a 50%+1 majority.

Look at Maine 2009 rejected SSCM, 2012 repealed it and now it's legal.

>>>>

For now; while the media slumbers on stories like Harvey Milk's true bio, the statistics on gays and child molesting, real practices in behavioral science showing deviant sexual orientations as learned, and socially inherited behaviors:

Then you will see lukewarm turn chilly overnight.
 
[
What should be bothering people is the specter of voters seeking to deny citizens their inalienable rights motivated solely by animus toward a particular class of persons, absent a compelling governmental interest or legitimate legislative end, only to make them different from anyone else.

Although that such hate still exists in the United States should not be surprising, it should certainly be subject to condemnation by a majority of citizens regardless the jurisdiction. That it is not is troubling, and exists as further evidence that we remain very much in need of the Constitution and its case law to protect all citizens from that hate and ignorance, where fearful reactionaries seek to deny same-sex couples their civil liberties.

The largest ignorance of all? That homosexuality is some sort of innate race. It isn't. It's a behavior. And we discriminate against behaviors every day of the week. Don't look for that to change soon. Unless of course you believe the civil and penal code systems of each state shouldn't exist? Already you believe the initiative system shouldn't exist; at least when it comes to Prop 8, am I right?

The Supreme Court in the DOMA Opinion recognizes that homosexuality is a behavior. That's why they said it was only "allowed" "in some states" but not others. They delineated how it becomes legal in some states but not in others. They Upheld that the right of each state's citizenry, via consensus, to say "yes" or "no" to gay marriage is a constitutional right of those citizens. And they said it was retroactive that way to the founding of the country.

Since consensus in California is done via the intiative system, Prop 8 is fully legal and binding, and, when challenged at the Supreme Court level on good standing this time, will be found to be valid and all marriages legitimized in law will then be annulled as such.

You can't break the law no matter what type of deviant sex you think is cool and the new fad. Not according to DOMA.
 
[

What should be bothering people is the specter of voters seeking to deny citizens their inalienable rights motivated solely by animus toward a particular class of persons, absent a compelling governmental interest or legitimate legislative end, only to make them different from anyone else.



Although that such hate still exists in the United States should not be surprising, it should certainly be subject to condemnation by a majority of citizens regardless the jurisdiction. That it is not is troubling, and exists as further evidence that we remain very much in need of the Constitution and its case law to protect all citizens from that hate and ignorance, where fearful reactionaries seek to deny same-sex couples their civil liberties.



The largest ignorance of all? That homosexuality is some sort of innate race. It isn't. It's a behavior. And we discriminate against behaviors every day of the week. Don't look for that to change soon. Unless of course you believe the civil and penal code systems of each state shouldn't exist? Already you believe the initiative system shouldn't exist; at least when it comes to Prop 8, am I right?



The Supreme Court in the DOMA Opinion recognizes that homosexuality is a behavior. That's why they said it was only "allowed" "in some states" but not others. They delineated how it becomes legal in some states but not in others. They Upheld that the right of each state's citizenry, via consensus, to say "yes" or "no" to gay marriage is a constitutional right of those citizens. And they said it was retroactive that way to the founding of the country.



Since consensus in California is done via the intiative system, Prop 8 is fully legal and binding, and, when challenged at the Supreme Court level on good standing this time, will be found to be valid and all marriages legitimized in law will then be annulled as such.



You can't break the law no matter what type of deviant sex you think is cool and the new fad. Not according to DOMA.


Don't give up your day job barracks barrister.

The Constitutionality of anti gay marriage laws has not yet been determined by the SCOTUS. Be patient.
 
[

What should be bothering people is the specter of voters seeking to deny citizens their inalienable rights motivated solely by animus toward a particular class of persons, absent a compelling governmental interest or legitimate legislative end, only to make them different from anyone else.



Although that such hate still exists in the United States should not be surprising, it should certainly be subject to condemnation by a majority of citizens regardless the jurisdiction. That it is not is troubling, and exists as further evidence that we remain very much in need of the Constitution and its case law to protect all citizens from that hate and ignorance, where fearful reactionaries seek to deny same-sex couples their civil liberties.



The largest ignorance of all? That homosexuality is some sort of innate race. It isn't. It's a behavior. And we discriminate against behaviors every day of the week. Don't look for that to change soon. Unless of course you believe the civil and penal code systems of each state shouldn't exist? Already you believe the initiative system shouldn't exist; at least when it comes to Prop 8, am I right?



The Supreme Court in the DOMA Opinion recognizes that homosexuality is a behavior. That's why they said it was only "allowed" "in some states" but not others. They delineated how it becomes legal in some states but not in others. They Upheld that the right of each state's citizenry, via consensus, to say "yes" or "no" to gay marriage is a constitutional right of those citizens. And they said it was retroactive that way to the founding of the country.



Since consensus in California is done via the intiative system, Prop 8 is fully legal and binding, and, when challenged at the Supreme Court level on good standing this time, will be found to be valid and all marriages legitimized in law will then be annulled as such.



You can't break the law no matter what type of deviant sex you think is cool and the new fad. Not according to DOMA.


Don't give up your day job barracks barrister.

The Constitutionality of anti gay marriage laws has not yet been determined by the SCOTUS. Be patient.

polygamy and bigamy are also in the 'yet to be determined' category. If SCOTUS says two person gay marriage is legal, then there will be no defense to deny that same right to bigamists and polygamists.

If its really about equality and fairness (and we both know its not) then we should not and cannot discriminate against multi person marriages of any sex or number.

So you and your 'partner' can begin tryouts for a third member, with or without a "member". How exciting for you. :lol:
 
polygamy and bigamy are also in the 'yet to be determined' category.

Actually the case Reynolds v. United States where the SCOTUS ruled there was not a right to Multiple Civil Marriages.

If SCOTUS says two person gay marriage is legal, then there will be no defense to deny that same right to bigamists and polygamists.

#1 If you are talking about multiple Religious Marriages you are probably correct. In the eyes of the government there would be only one Civil Marriage between those who have the valid license. In the eyes of the law anything else would simply be co-habitation (which isn't really the governments business anyway).

#2 Actually there is a compelling government interest in limiting Civil Marriage to two consenting adults.


>>>>
 
[
Actually the case Reynolds v. United States where the SCOTUS ruled there was not a right to Multiple Civil Marriages.

>>>>

Well at least they are consistent, because they just ruled in DOMA that gay marriage isn't a right either and that it is up to each state's consensus to say "yes" or "no" to it. This consensus was described and therefore guaranteed as a constitutional right "in the way the Framers of the Consitution intended".

Again, read the fine print. SCOTUS said in DOMA that gay marriage is only "allowed" "in some states"... the same way polygamy must be handled as it makes its debut in various state's consensuses.
 
Well at least they are consistent, because they just ruled in DOMA that gay marriage isn't a right either and that it is up to each state's consensus to say "yes" or "no" to it. This consensus was described and therefore guaranteed as a constitutional right "in the way the Framers of the Consitution intended".

No they didn't.

The case addressed Federal discrimination when the States said "Yes" and the Federal government said "No".

The DOMA case didn't address the question as to whether States can say "No".

Again, read the fine print. SCOTUS said in DOMA that gay marriage is only "allowed" "in some states"... the same way polygamy must be handled as it makes its debut in various state's consensuses.

Ya, the fine print on which way the court is moving is there for anyone to see. They overturned DOMA as discriminatory and a violation of the Constitution. The vacated the 9th Circuit Court ruling that upheld Prop 8 and allowed the lower courts ruling to remain in place restoring Same-sex Civil Marriage in California.


>>>>
 
The case addressed Federal discrimination when the States said "Yes" and the Federal government said "No".

The DOMA case didn't address the question as to whether States can say "No".

So you think that when SCOTUS Upheld each state's citizenry's broad-swath right to consensus on gay marriage as their constitutional right, the word "consensus" meant in the dicta, "only the right to approve and not deny" gay marriage?

Here's the passage straight from the DOMA decision:

Page 19 DOMA Opinion: Supreme Court DOMA Ruling: Read Full Decision Here [DOC] | HEAVY
In acting first to recognize and then to allow same-sex marriages, New York was responding “to the initiative of those who [sought] a voice in shaping the destiny of their own times.” Bond v. United States, 564 U. S. ___, ___ (2011) (slip op., at 9). These actions were without doubt a proper exercise of its sovereign authority within our federal system, all in the way that the Framers of the Constitution intended. The dynamics of state government in the federal system are to allow the formation of consensus respecting the way the members of a discrete community treat each other in their daily contact and constant interaction with each other

In the DOMA dicta just prior to this, SCOTUS went to great lengths discussing how gay marriage was a new and odd idea; and as such required as broad as possible of a weigh-in from the citizenry considering passing or not passing it in their own "discrete community"/state.

The word "consensus" does not mean "a gathering to only agree to something and never deny it". And SCOTUS also said this about gay marriage, just in case you still think how they felt about its legitimacy across all 50 states isn't clear:

Page 16
In order to assess the validity of that intervention it is necessary to discuss the extent of the state power and authority over marriage as a matter of history and tradition. State laws defining and regulating marriage, of course, must respect the constitutional rights of persons, see, e.g., Loving v. Virginia, 388 U. S. 1 (1967); but, subject to those guarantees, “regulation of domestic relations” is“an area that has long been regarded as a virtually exclusive province of the States.” Sosna v. Iowa, 419 U. S. 393,

Hmmm "subject to those guarantees [of Loving v Virginia]"..."regulation of domestic relations is an area that has long been regarded as a virtually exclusive province of the States". Yet SCOTUS concluded the DOMA Opinion saying that only 12 states had legal gay marriage and that it was "only allowed" "in some states"...In case you missed the significance of their reference to Loving v Virginia and then their declaration that gay marriage is only "allowed" "in some states", it's an advertisement as to how the US Supreme Court finds Loving v Virginia as applicable to gays wanting to marry.

Sorry to break it to you.

Page 17
The recognition of civil marriages is central to state domestic relations law applicable to its residents and citizens. See Williams v. North Carolina, 317 U. S. 287,298 (1942) (“Each state as a sovereign has a rightful and legitimate concern in the marital status of persons domiciled within its borders”). The definition of marriage is the foundation of the State’s broader authority to regulate the subject of domestic relations with respect to the“[p]rotection of offspring, property interests, and the enforcement of marital responsibilities.” Ibid. “[T]he states,at the time of the adoption of the Constitution, possessed full power over the subject of marriage and divorce

And here's the clincher:

Page 17
In De Sylva v. Ballentine, 351 U. S. 570 (1956), for example, the Court held that, “[t]o decide who is the widow or widower of a deceased author, or who are his executors or next of kin,” under the Copyright Act “requires a reference to the law of the State which created those legal relationships” because “there is no federal law of domestic relations.” Id., at 580. In order to respect this principle, the federal courts, as a general rule, do not adjudicate issues of marital status even when there might otherwise be a basis for federal jurisdiction.
What state law, pray tell, legitimizes gay marriage against the will of the Prop 8 intiative? ie: where is it written in state law that gay marriage is a legal and legitimate institution as ratified by the governed in their initiative/consensus system? Where is the proposition that was laid before the people in California to vote upon in consensus, that ratifies and delineates gay marriage as legal in that state?

Because the CA constitution says that marriage is only legal between a man and a woman and that would be the only law the fed could refer to when deciding matters of marriage from California at any future challenges:

Here is the only legitimate law in California referring to marriage as enacted by the consensus of the people governed there. Of note is that it falls under the "Declaration of Rights" heading:

as of December 18, 2013, the date of this post...

CALIFORNIA CONSTITUTION
ARTICLE 1 DECLARATION OF RIGHTS


SEC. 7.5. Only marriage between a man and a woman is valid or
recognized in California. http://www.leginfo.ca.gov/.const/.article_1

A single gay judge overturning a constitutional provision because the petitioners lacked standing does not a legitimate law make. What specific language would the fed refer to in refereeing any future challenges? The lower court opinion or California's Constitution. Remember, this constitution has not been formally changed to include gay marriage. Ask yourselves why that is? [The answer is because gay marriage as defined by the recent SCOTUS decisions is patently illegal in California and even the rogue public servants currently in contempt of the US Supreme Court's Decision on the matter don't have the balls to try to rewrite the consensus law there on marriage]
 
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>


I'm bored rehasing the same tired talking points, out of context snippets that your repeat and showing how you are incorrect on your interpretation.

At the end of the day Prop 8 was ruled unconstitutional, your interpretation of the laws is incorrect, SSCM have resumed in California and are recognized in that State, all other States that recognize SSCM, and by the Federal Government.

The SCOTUS didn't use the DOMA decision to overturn Prop 8, that is a fact. The SCOTUS actually vacated the 9th Circuit Court ruling that upheld Prop 8 and left the District Court Judges ruling in place.

Believe as you will, the rest of us deal in reality.

You ignore the writing on the wall, that's OK, it just means you will be in for a rude awakening in the future. You should be scared, very scared - and as your posts in this thread indicated, you probably are. The SCOTUS recognized that discrimination in Civil Marraige based target laws on a class of people is unconstitutional. They punted on the Prop 8 case because of "standing" to delay having to rule on the core question. They won't be able to do that for long.

"(b) By seeking to injure the very class New York seeks to protect,
DOMA violates basic due process and equal protection principles ap-
plicable to the Federal Government. The Constitution’s guarantee of
equality “must at the very least mean that a bare congressional de-
sire to harm a politically unpopular group cannot” justify disparate
treatment of that group. "​


The last word is yours.


>>>>
 
heres an interesting article about how a judge relaxed rules against polygamy in part due to federal court rulings on same sex relationships

Judge Softens Utah's Anti-Polygamy Law To Mixed Reactions : NPR


Here is the court decision -->> https://ecf.utd.uscourts.gov/cgi-bin/show_public_doc?211cv0652-78

The court did not relax Civil Law's against polygamy, the law also made it illegal for cohabitation for consenting adults - that was the part that was struck.



>>>>
 
heres an interesting article about how a judge relaxed rules against polygamy in part due to federal court rulings on same sex relationships

Judge Softens Utah's Anti-Polygamy Law To Mixed Reactions : NPR

It may be interesting but it’s completely irrelevant to the issue of same-sex couples’ 14th Amendment right to access marriage, as polygamy is not ‘marriage.’

if you can read the 14th to allow gay marriage you can also read it to allow polygamy. Even more so since polygamy often has a "freedom of religion aspect" also. Why isnt it a right for the B in LGBT to have at least two partners?
 
I'm still puzzled at how the government thinks it has the right to legislate anything about marriage. Marriage is a religious rite. The only reason government gets to talk about it is there are economic and tax adjustments when married. So the simple solution is this: eliminate all legal adjustments for those who get married and return marriage to the religions. Thus religions can allow or forbid it as they see fit, and government can get on to more important things.
 
heres an interesting article about how a judge relaxed rules against polygamy in part due to federal court rulings on same sex relationships
Judge Softens Utah's Anti-Polygamy Law To Mixed Reactions : NPR
Here is the court decision -->> https://ecf.utd.uscourts.gov/cgi-bin/show_public_doc?211cv0652-78
The court did not relax Civil Law's against polygamy, the law also made it illegal for cohabitation for consenting adults - that was the part that was struck.
>>>>

not sure you've got it described quite right either. In itself it probably isnt that bad of a ruling.

But where will federal courts end up going if they follow gay-marriage advocate logic?
 
heres an interesting article about how a judge relaxed rules against polygamy in part due to federal court rulings on same sex relationships
Judge Softens Utah's Anti-Polygamy Law To Mixed Reactions : NPR
Here is the court decision -->> https://ecf.utd.uscourts.gov/cgi-bin/show_public_doc?211cv0652-78
The court did not relax Civil Law's against polygamy, the law also made it illegal for cohabitation for consenting adults - that was the part that was struck.
>>>>

not sure you've got it described quite right either. In itself it probably isnt that bad of a ruling.

Since the only portion of the law found unconstitutional was about government limiting consenting, cohabitating adults and didn't impact the portion pertaining to polygamy at all, then how did I describe it incorrectly?


But where will federal courts end up going if they follow gay-marriage advocate logic?


Maybe they will recognize the ability to Civilly Marry multiple partners, maybe that their is a compelling government interest in limiting Civil Marriage to two consenting adults.

The "Slippery Slope" argument (which was used to deny interracial Civil Marriage equality) was not legally valid to deny interracial couples, it's not legally valid to deny same-sex couples, it's not legally valid to deny multiple partner Civil Marriages.

What will happen though is that arguments for multiple partner Civil Marriages will be weighed on their merits as to whether (a) such laws are subject to heightened or strict scrutiny if found to target a specific group (which they don't since they have general applicability), (b) or if they are grounded on rational logic - rational basis - (which they are because of the geometric complexity of multiple partner Civil Marriages from a government perspective.


*****************************


There are many arguments against bigamy from a historical perspective that if managed properly would no longer be a large issue.
  1. 1. In the past such societies were almost exclusively polygamous and structured in such a way as to be abusive to women. Women were viewed almost as property and were expected to be subservient to the man.
  2. 2. It was not uncommon for older men to exercise political (or religious) "power" over community such that very young women were forced into marriages with these older men (often much older) and left with no means of escape from the community. (i.e. statutory rape with no means of escape.)
  3. 3. High concentrations of polygamous marriages tends to scew the natural ratios of the available male/females in a given population. If you have one man marrying multiple women, those women are effectively removed from the - ah - market so to speak. Now you have an increased number of males while at the same time having a shortage of available females. Leading to problems with how to deal with the males who were often excluded from the community.

Now, these reasons may not be as valid today in a modern western civilization society - although many of these problems might still be applicable to African and Middle-Eastern societies. Much larger and more mobile populations also reduces the impact of past wrongs which occurred in isolated enclaves.


However from a modern perspective there are still valid reasons against legalized bigamy.

Legal View: There is no legal framework to deal with partners in a Civil Marriage that exceeds two persons and the issues that are already complex enough dealing with two individuals and possibly children let alone increasing those issues exponentially with each additional spouse.

In each bigamous marriage, there would be at a minimum three legally intertwined status:
A married to B,
A married to C, and
B married to C.

Add a fourth spouse and you get:
A married to B
A married to C
A married to D
B married to C
B married to D
C married to D

Add a fifth spouse and you get:
A married to B
A married to C
A married to D
A married to E
B married to C
B married to D
B married to E
C married to D
C married to E
E married to D

Add another, etc...


So you have issues with property on who owns what, what was brought into the marriage when. If C decides he/she no longer wants to be part of the plural marriage to what extent is he/she awarded property from A, B, D, and E.

You have issues also with children. Who are the parents. The biological parents or are all adults in a plural marriage equally parents. In the event of a divorce who gets child custody? Visitation? Child support? etc...

When the discussion is about marriage between two consenting adults the current legal system will support it because laws, courts, etc... are geared toward dealing with the same situations. Linear increases in the number of spouses causes an exponential increase on the courts in dealing with those issues.


So there is a secular reason to be leery of bigamy as a government recognized entity that has nothing to do with religion or morality.


>>>>
 
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not sure you've got it described quite right either. In itself it probably isnt that bad of a ruling.
Since the only portion of the law found unconstitutional was about government limiting consenting, cohabitating adults and didn't impact the portion pertaining to polygamy at all, then how did I describe it incorrectly?
But where will federal courts end up going if they follow gay-marriage advocate logic?
Maybe they will recognize the ability to Civilly Marry multiple partners, maybe that their is a compelling government interest in limiting Civil Marriage to two consenting adults.

The "Slippery Slope" argument (which was used to deny interracial Civil Marriage equality) was not legally valid to deny interracial couples, it's not legally valid to deny same-sex couples, it's not legally valid to deny multiple partner Civil Marriages.

What will happen though is that arguments for multiple partner Civil Marriages will be weighed on their merits as to whether (a) such laws are subject to heightened or strict scrutiny if found to target a specific group (which they don't since they have general applicability), (b) or if they are grounded on rational logic - rational basis - (which they are because of the geometric complexity of multiple partner Civil Marriages from a government perspective.*****************************
There are many arguments against bigamy from a historical perspective that if managed properly would no longer be a large issue.
  1. 1. In the past such societies were almost exclusively polygamous and structured in such a way as to be abusive to women. Women were viewed almost as property and were expected to be subservient to the man.
  2. 2. It was not uncommon for older men to exercise political (or religious) "power" over community such that very young women were forced into marriages with these older men (often much older) and left with no means of escape from the community. (i.e. statutory rape with no means of escape.)
  3. 3. High concentrations of polygamous marriages tends to scew the natural ratios of the available male/females in a given population. If you have one man marrying multiple women, those women are effectively removed from the - ah - market so to speak. Now you have an increased number of males while at the same time having a shortage of available females. Leading to problems with how to deal with the males who were often excluded from the community.

Now, these reasons may not be as valid today in a modern western civilization society - although many of these problems might still be applicable to African and Middle-Eastern societies. Much larger and more mobile populations also reduces the impact of past wrongs which occurred in isolated enclaves.

However from a modern perspective there are still valid reasons against legalized bigamy.

Legal View: There is no legal framework to deal with partners in a Civil Marriage that exceeds two persons and the issues that are already complex enough dealing with two individuals and possibly children let alone increasing those issues exponentially with each additional spouse.

In each bigamous marriage, there would be at a minimum three legally intertwined status: .....................
>>>>
incorrectly because you seemed to imply the opposite of the laws response to limiting consenting, cohabitating adults, but i think it was just poor wording

you said "The "Slippery Slope" argument (which was used to deny interracial Civil Marriage equality) was not legally valid to deny interracial couples"
The slippery slope argument was not used to deny interracial marriages,....a slope from where to where?....but you thought youd get another opportunity to play on the emotional tug of interracial marriage so you did.

You've really latched onto the phrase "compelling government interest" havent you ...its really just the legal term for judicial bullshit.

even so as ive said here before, "Strict scrutiny" (another piece of judicial bullshit) should not be applied.
 
you said "The "Slippery Slope" argument (which was used to deny interracial Civil Marriage equality) was not legally valid to deny interracial couples"
The slippery slope argument was not used to deny interracial marriages,....a slope from where to where?....but you thought youd get another opportunity to play on the emotional tug of interracial marriage so you did.


Actually Slippery Slope arguments were used to justify anti-miscegenation.

"As with the Bell court, the Jackson court deployed a
variant of the slippery slope argument in portending
the deplorable consequences that would follow should
the court find that the federal Constitution guaranteed
an unqualified right to marry:

All of one’s rights as a citizen of the United States
will be found guaranteed by the Constitution of
the United States. If any provision of that instrument
confers upon a citizen the right to marry any one
who is willing to wed him, our attention has not been
called to it. If such be one of the rights attached to
American citizenship all our marriage acts forbidding
intermarriage between persons within certain degrees
of consanguinity are void, and the nephew may marry
his aunt, the niece her uncle, and the son his mother
or grandmother. . . . The condition of a community,
moral, mental and physical, which would tolerate
indiscriminate intermarriage for several generations,
would demonstrate the wisdom of laws which
regulate marriage and forbid the intermarriage of those
nearly related in blood.​

http://www.law.northwestern.edu/lawreview/v99/n4/1543/LR99n4Cahill.pdf


Another argument used against interracial marriage was
the slippery slope. Defenders of traditional marriage back
then worried that allowing interracial marriage would lead
to, as one court put it, “the father living with his daughter,
the son with the mother,” and the “Turk or Mohammedan,
with his numerous wives, [] establish[ing] his harem at the
doors of the capitol . . . .” When the California Supreme
Court struck down that state’s ban on interracial marriage,
it had to defend its decision against the charge that allowing
interracial marriage would lead to polygamy. It has been sixty
years since the California decision. Striking down the ban
on interracial marriage obviously did not lead to polygamy or
fathers marrying daughters. Perhaps the same specious
argument can now also be laid to rest in the same-sex
marriage debate.​


http://lawreview.vermontlaw.edu/files/2012/02/johnson1.pdf


>>>>
 
congratulations, you found some obscure references.

the recent Utah decision does show that maybe the slippery slope argument is valid. Tho I would say its use in interracial marriage was not valid as the only restriction u are lifting is the factor of race.
 
congratulations, you found some obscure references.

the recent Utah decision does show that maybe the slippery slope argument is valid. Tho I would say its use in interracial marriage was not valid as the only restriction u are lifting is the factor of race.

Your statement was "The slippery slope argument was not used to deny interracial marriages".

You were wrong. You should man up. BTW - Citing law journals which reference cases where arguments presented to the courts is not normally considered an "obscure reference".


Whether polygamy ever becomes legal or not is open to discussion. Probably at some point it will - might be 5 years, 50 years or 500 years. It's legalization though will be based on the merits for that decision. "Slippery Slope" though is not a valid legal basis for discrimination though because of what "might" happen in a different situation.


>>>>
 
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