M.D. Rawlings
Classical Liberal
Continued from Post #879: http://www.usmessageboard.com/threads/is-there-one-sound-valid-syllogistic-argument-for-the-existence-of-god.376399/page-30#post-9883604
The Transcendental Argument
1. Knowledge (logical, moral, geometric, mathematical and scientific) is not possible if God doesn't exist.
2. Knowledge is possible.
3. God exists.
It seems to me that there remains a serious misunderstanding about what the transcendental argument, which is the most powerful argument for God's existence, demonstrates. Though the following is not in fact the ultimate point: by definition, there is nothing that may be known (or nothing that may exist) that is not known by an all-knowing knower. An all-knowing knower necessarily knows all things, including the awareness that it knows everything that may be known.
An omniscient Being = Someone Who knows everything about everything/everyone that exists.
I’m not sure I understand what some are asserting regarding the computer analogy in the above, but assuming such a thing did have the ability to access data: it appears to me that all we'd be describing is some form of artificial intelligence programmed to "believe" that the knowledge it knows at any given moment = all knowledge. In reality, of course, it would never know all that may be known about everything that exists, but merely know all there is to know, which is problematical, about the knowledge it possesses at any given moment.
This seems this is right, though it's certainly possible that I might have expressed something either here or elsewhere imperfectly.
My apologies, I should have been clearer in my challenge, but I was talking to someone who barely understands logic, and I let my language slip.
The problem is that axioms are logical truths, that does not make them automatically universal truths outside the realm of logic. I do not see any evidence that the universe is constrained by our ideas of logic. In fact, since logic can prove things that are demonstrably false, I see exactly the opposite. In order for something to be universally true, not just logically axiomatic, it would have to apply, without exception, every where in the universe.
Given the existence of black holes, which actually break down all the laws of physics, but are still part of the universe, no physical law we know is universal.
Assuming the existence of a supernatural being that created the universe, and is thus beyond our ability to define, I refuse o believe that that being is in any way limited by our insistence that logical truths apply to him. Given that science has proven that the ability to make choices actually exists in living beings, and that I am incapable of explaining how someone can know all my choices before I make them and that I have free will, there must be some mechanism to not know my choices until after they are made. That means that I have to assume that being omniscient only applies to current and past knowledge, or that we don't actually understand the concept.
Besides, I already described a computer system that can collect all knowledge in the universe, yet not be aware of that knowledge.
Well, barely understanding logic is not his only problem. It took four times to ask him the same question that required nothing more than a simple yes or no. The angels dancing on the head of the pin in his mind were Jakevellian. Last I checked, he still hadn't answered the question.
It seems to me that you raise three profound concerns:
1. The proscriptive-descriptive dichotomy of the various forms of logic: the distinction between the proscriptive axioms of logic and the descriptive application of these axioms to the substance of the cosmological order outside of the realm of logic. By the way, thus far, in my posts, when I talk about these things being absolute and universal, I'm talking about the constraints of human cognition within the realm of logic.
Here I'm speaking more broadly to the various kinds of logic: the classic laws of thought and expression (syllogistic), the laws of propositional logic (mathematical/symbolic), the laws of inference and the logic of first order predicate.
2. The origin of logic?
3. The free will-omniscient dichotomy (in theological terms, the problem of evil).
Number 3 is the most daunting.
I'd be willing to take a stab at these if you like, but in small bits for obvious reasons. LOL!
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