Skylar
Diamond Member
- Jul 5, 2014
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Or the parents just don't want to be married anymore. The children rarely, if ever, have 'representation' in a divorce.So you're claiming that preserving contact with both the mother and father after divorce "doesn't happen"...and that this isn't part of the implied intent of the origin of the marriage contract to begin with?
I'm claiming exactly what I typed: married parents can get divorced if they don't want to be married anymore. An 'abusive psychological atmosphere for children' isn't necessary....And children rarely, if ever, have 'representation' in divorce....Making your pseudo-legal gibberish that unless 'children' have 'representation', its a 'mistrial' just more nonsense blather from a person who has no idea what they're talking about.
pseudo-legal" is probably being more than polite. he clearly knows nothing about how the system works.
Do you know how infants and contract law works with respect to necessities for children? It's clear you do not. Because if you did, you'd know that the necessity of both a mother and father in marriage (the reason the contract was created in the first place) can't be dissolved.
Do you know that you have no idea what the fuck you're talking about? That no court nor law recognizes any of your gibberish about children being 'married' to their parents? That no court nor law recognizes the marriage of parents as a 'minor contract' for their children?
And you never did answer my question: since virtually no divorces have representation for the children.....by your own logic, virtually all divorces are 'mistrials', yes? Its either that, or you admitting that you don't have the slighest clue how the law works and are making up your claims as you go along.