Zone1 Bible verses that seem to contradict other Bible verses: 1 John 1:8 and 1 John 3:9

Clyde bears proof to the following.

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I believe 1 John 3:9- is saying--One born of God doesn't willfully sin-- is the meaning behind those words. At Heb 10:26--Its willful sin that is condemned.

just another protestant "do over" of Christ's clear words
 
Clyde bears proof to the following.

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One Question? Logic and Reason based. Just how are you to be a Christian and declare the Holy Bible to be useless, how can you not follow the commandments of Jesus, whose Words will judge everyone on judgement day? "He that rejecteth Me and receives not My Words, has one that judges him, THE WORD THAT I HAVE SPOKEN, THE SAME WILL JUDGE HIM IN THE LAST DAY. " -- John 12:48

"In vain you do worship ME (Jesus), teaching as doctrine the commandments of man."-- Matt.15:19. I don't suppose the US Government consists of men? And you prefer to follow a social communist like Kristian O'Connell instead of the Doctrine of God as found in the Holy Bible? Respectively? Kristian O'Connell was full of it.

"We are to be judged by the Books, The Holy Bible and the Book of Life, as our works and life on earth will be compared to the words within the Books. (Rev. 20:12)








Yeah "Kristin O'Connell" dictates Christian Doctrine. :abgg2q.jpg: FYI: Have you not read and comprehended the 1st Amendment? There is no such animal as Separation of Church and State in the United States Constitution or following Bill of Rights.....if you insist upon upholding a separation of church and state you need to look to the USSR constitution (1936....etc., .......who needs Communists controlling our nation? Congress....i.e, the federal congress is already banned from establishing any single religion as a state religion......but people stop reading at the wrong place........the same amendment, the 1st declares Congress shall make no law to inhibit the FREE EXERCISE of religion.

Some left wing judges in the 40s and 50s.........took a letter from history and attempted to declare that personal letter from T. Jefferson held the same legal weight as the US Constitution. The supposed separation of church and state........comes only from the sound a social communist supporter on the bench. There has never been a law that separates church and state. In fact The US Constitution is based greatly upon "Blackstone's Commentaries on the Laws of England...where did Blackstone reference these commentaries? From the Holy Bible. Look it up, educate yourself


Looks like I had the sock puppet property labeled.........you are supporter of Social Communism. I defy you or anyone to find the words, Separation of Church and State anywhere in the Constitution or following bill of rights. As declared if you wish to support a separation of church or state........simply go to Mother Russia, China, Cuba.....Venezuela....there you will find many comrades........Comrade Slow Horsemeat.
 
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Clyde 154 is wrong as usual. :)
You keep declaring that "I AM WRONG"..........the words being presented are not my words, they come from the actual content of the Holy Scriptures, documented exactly where they can be found and repeated, by Book, Chapter and Verse, thus.....another ad hominem presentation by you. Prove I am wrong.........anything less is simply ad hominem bullshit

When you attempt to match wits with the Holy Spirit of Truth....i.e, the Spirit of God that breathed out the Holy Scriptures (2 Tim. 3:16-17...esv translation).....its best not to show up with and empty chamber. Why do you present nothing but Ad hominem Bullshit? Because Truth cannot be refuted....the word of God is truth (John 17:17)
:)
 
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(I tried to add this following in the OP but kept getting the blue line... sigh)

Anyway, there was an explanation of this "contradiction" at the site I went to, but to me, the explanation sounded Protestant.

My thought is this: This seeming contradiction appears to explain the concept of mortal versus venial sin.

To explain: It is SO true that those who stay in mortal sin are serving the devil.

Whereas, there is no way we humans, living in such a sinful world, can always, 24/7/365 give up ALL venial sin. Or maybe I should speak for myself?

But then again, we look at the first psg which says that if we say we are without sin, we are liars. So no, I am not speaking just for myself
You are assuming the same subjects for both statemetns.
But Jesus said no man born of woman is greater than John AND that anyone in the Kingdom of God is greater.
 
You are assuming the same subjects for both statemetns.
But Jesus said no man born of woman is greater than John AND that anyone in the Kingdom of God is greater.
I would never "presume" to speak for God......God speaks for Himself in the Holy Scriptures, "All scripture is inspired of God (in the Greek language, the language used in the majority of the N.T. scripture (Theopneustos).......the word for inspired literally means, "the breath of God, or God breathed the scriptures into existence) -- 2 Tim. 3:16-17. This passage goes on to declare that the Scriptures should be used for N.T. doctrine.........in order to make the man of God, perfectly equipped for all good works.

Jesus was clear and unambiguous in speaking about the greatness of John the Baptist (Matthew 11:11)...........When Jesus made this statement.....the Kingdom of God, i.e, the church that was given to Jesus by the Father (Matthew 16, 28:18-20) was yet to come. Jesus was making a suggestion to the people in how to pray, and He prayed as such, "Thy Kingdom Come......" (Matthew 6:10) Future tense. As explained those who have entered the kingdom of God are greater than any man prior.........as John explained in 1 John........if one is born again and resides in the kingdom, anyone therein Does not want to sin because they are following the commandments of Jesus.......Jesus declared that is how one displays His/Her love........by keeping the commandments of Jesus (John 14:15)

The terms Kingdom of God, Kingdom of Christ, Kingdom.....etc., are all synonymous for CHURCH (or those called out of this world into the kingdom of God as explained by Jesus......(John 15:18-25) Before one enters the Kingdom/Church.....one must be symbolically put to death via the act of water baptism which represents the grave, resurrection and rebirth......i.e, one is Born again of the Water and of the Spirit, Jesus made it clear, "Verily, verily! I say unto thee, "Except one be born of water and the spirit......one cannot enter the kingdom of God" -- John 3:5

Peter compares the salvation provided by Baptism with Noah and how water did save Noah and his family (1 Peter 3:20-21) Paul explains that Water Baptism represents the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ in its symbolism (Romans 6:4)

There is not one example of anyone being translated into the kingdom/Church without water baptism ...........after the death of Jesus Christ which ushered in the kingdom of God....the Church/Kingdom of the Christ (Acts 2)

What about the thief on the Cross? Jesus forgave him of all sin before Jesus died when He declared IT IS FINISHED (the literal Son of God, God incarnate) personally forgave the thief. When the Kingdom was ushered in on the day of pentecost after the ascension of Jesus Christ into Heaven............Peter who had been given the keys to the kingdom/church (Matt. 16) used those keys and told everyone just how they were to be translated (Col. 1:13) into the kingdom, "Repent and be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ........" -- Acts 2:38 It is through the act of baptism that one comes into spiritual contact with the sacrificial blood of the Son (Col. 1:14)

As John explained in 1 John 3:8-9............once you have come into contract with the blood of the Lamb (Jesus), and been translated into the kingdom/church.....there is no need to be baptized again, if we slip into sin, and REPENT the Blood of Christ still stands between our sin and God, as Jesus is our advocate and High Priest (1 John 2:1, Heb. 4:14)
 
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