Why doesn't the DOJ Civil Rights Division defend the 2nd?

According to the US Department of Justice website "The Civil Rights Division protects the civil and constitutional rights of all people in this country, enforcing the Constitution and federal laws of the United States in pursuit of our founding ideals – fundamental fairness, equal justice, and equal opportunity for all.".

So why doesn't the division litigate against states and other units of government in the defense of the 2nd amendment?


Prosecute violations of criminal statutes that prohibit specified acts of interference with federally protected rights and activities

I know:

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"the treatment of the Second Amendment as a disfavored right" - Justice Thomas
Maria Buntins does that from Russia.
 
Yes, it’s the part you fuckers miss.
we don't miss it. unlike you, we don't have ADD.

NOTHING in the amendment states you are required to belong to a militia to own a firearm.

but, because you stop reading at 'militia', you think it does.
 
we don't miss it. unlike you, we don't have ADD.

NOTHING in the amendment states you are required to belong to a militia to own a firearm.

but, because you stop reading at 'militia', you think it does.
Didn’t post that you add anything fuckup.

You gun/penis wussies omit things.
 
we don't miss it. unlike you, we don't have ADD.

NOTHING in the amendment states you are required to belong to a militia to own a firearm.

but, because you stop reading at 'militia', you think it does.
This is where amendments can modify the original sections of the constitution.
Take Article 1, Section 10, Clause 3

No State shall, without the Consent of Congress, lay any Duty of Tonnage, keep Troops, or Ships of War in time of Peace, enter into any Agreement or Compact with another State, or with a foreign Power, or engage in War, unless actually invaded, or in such imminent Danger as will not admit of delay.

This means that congress could by law, withdraw their permission for states to have a militia. As congress must give permission for states to "keep troops" in times of peace. Yet give the states permission to engage in war (which requires troops) when they're invaded or in imminent danger.

This means without congresses approval, states couldn't draft or train troops, ahead of an invasion by hostile forces. They would be at the sole mercy of the federal government, and "common defense", for their territorial integrity.

Protecting their own state would be a right you would think the states should have, but could be taken away under the original constitution. But for -- the 2nd amendment, saying a free state needed it's own militia.
 
This is where amendments can modify the original sections of the constitution.
Take Article 1, Section 10, Clause 3

No State shall, without the Consent of Congress, lay any Duty of Tonnage, keep Troops, or Ships of War in time of Peace, enter into any Agreement or Compact with another State, or with a foreign Power, or engage in War, unless actually invaded, or in such imminent Danger as will not admit of delay.

This means that congress could by law, withdraw their permission for states to have a militia. As congress must give permission for states to "keep troops" in times of peace. Yet give the states permission to engage in war (which requires troops) when they're invaded or in imminent danger.

This means without congresses approval, states couldn't draft or train troops, ahead of an invasion by hostile forces. They would be at the sole mercy of the federal government, and "common defense", for their territorial integrity.

Protecting their own state would be a right you would think the states should have, but could be taken away under the original constitution. But for -- the 2nd amendment, saying a free state needed it's own militia.
what does that have to do with the Second giving the right to keep and bear arms to the People?
 

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