anotherlife
Gold Member
To my understanding, in contract law, a signed contract is valid only if both parties enter it in free will, and a contract is invalid, termed an adhesion contract, if one of the parties is forced to sign it against his will, or is deceived to sign it.
At the end of ww1-2 the losing signatory countries were under foreign occupation, so they lost sovereignty and free will for signature.
So why do we consider the ww1-2 peace treaties valid? By the way I think the US didn't even ratify the first one, the ww1 treaties.
At the end of ww1-2 the losing signatory countries were under foreign occupation, so they lost sovereignty and free will for signature.
So why do we consider the ww1-2 peace treaties valid? By the way I think the US didn't even ratify the first one, the ww1 treaties.