Where does the constitution give federal judges the power to repeal laws?

I see some still don't get that Congress has to amend the laws, not the Courts.
I see some sill don't understand how Courts work and the power granted to the Supreme Court by the Constitution.

So name any law the SC rewrote and amended. All the rulings mean is Congress has to modify them.
No the ruling means that if found Unconstitutional that part of the law is No LONGER valid. That is how courts work and the Constitution SPECIFICALLY grants that authority to the Supreme Court.
 
I see some still don't get that Congress has to amend the laws, not the Courts.
^^^ Strawman

The courts aren't amending laws.

Nah, it's spot on. You just have no idea what you're talking about, is all. The SC does not make law, a point you apparently can't digest. Ditto for Sgt. It's all moot anyway, since the Constitution has no real force of law any more, hasn't since the Civil War and the Court Lincoln appointed when the South seceded and their Judges vacated their seats., and of course the judicial activism of the Gilded Age finished off whatever was left of it by 1901. It's merely another partisan political hack gang now, whether under 'right' or ' left' wing political appointees.
 
I see some still don't get that Congress has to amend the laws, not the Courts.
^^^ Strawman

The courts aren't amending laws.

Nah, it's spot on. You just have no idea what you're talking about, is all. The SC does not make law, a point you apparently can't digest. Ditto for Sgt. It's all moot anyway, since the Constitution has no real force of law any more, hasn't since the Civil War and the Court Lincoln appointed when the South seceded and their Judges vacated their seats., and of course the judicial activism of the Gilded Age finished off whatever was left of it by 1901. It's merely another partisan political hack gang now, whether under 'right' or ' left' wing political appointees.
"The SC does not make law"

That's actually what I said. Glad to see you agree with me.
 
I see some still don't get that Congress has to amend the laws, not the Courts.
^^^ Strawman

The courts aren't amending laws.

Nah, it's spot on. You just have no idea what you're talking about, is all. The SC does not make law, a point you apparently can't digest. Ditto for Sgt. It's all moot anyway, since the Constitution has no real force of law any more, hasn't since the Civil War and the Court Lincoln appointed when the South seceded and their Judges vacated their seats., and of course the judicial activism of the Gilded Age finished off whatever was left of it by 1901. It's merely another partisan political hack gang now, whether under 'right' or ' left' wing political appointees.
"The SC does not make law"

That's actually what I said. Glad to see you agree with me.
It is simply amazing how these people do not know the function and power of a Court. The Constitution is crystal clear that the Supreme Court is the final Court for all matters involving the US and State Governments. A ruling has the force of the Constitution behind it.
 
I see some still don't get that Congress has to amend the laws, not the Courts.
^^^ Strawman

The courts aren't amending laws.

Nah, it's spot on. You just have no idea what you're talking about, is all. The SC does not make law, a point you apparently can't digest. Ditto for Sgt. It's all moot anyway, since the Constitution has no real force of law any more, hasn't since the Civil War and the Court Lincoln appointed when the South seceded and their Judges vacated their seats., and of course the judicial activism of the Gilded Age finished off whatever was left of it by 1901. It's merely another partisan political hack gang now, whether under 'right' or ' left' wing political appointees.
"The SC does not make law"

That's actually what I said. Glad to see you agree with me.
It is simply amazing how these people do not know the function and power of a Court. The Constitution is crystal clear that the Supreme Court is the final Court for all matters involving the US and State Governments. A ruling has the force of the Constitution behind it.
They're idiots who think the Supreme Court rendering a law as unconstitutional means the law was amended. :cuckoo:
 
I see some still don't get that Congress has to amend the laws, not the Courts.
^^^ Strawman

The courts aren't amending laws.

Nah, it's spot on. You just have no idea what you're talking about, is all. The SC does not make law, a point you apparently can't digest. Ditto for Sgt. It's all moot anyway, since the Constitution has no real force of law any more, hasn't since the Civil War and the Court Lincoln appointed when the South seceded and their Judges vacated their seats., and of course the judicial activism of the Gilded Age finished off whatever was left of it by 1901. It's merely another partisan political hack gang now, whether under 'right' or ' left' wing political appointees.
"The SC does not make law"

That's actually what I said. Glad to see you agree with me.
It is simply amazing how these people do not know the function and power of a Court. The Constitution is crystal clear that the Supreme Court is the final Court for all matters involving the US and State Governments. A ruling has the force of the Constitution behind it.



You are wrong on this point as well. There is Federal Law and there is State Law. The federal Courts have zero power over those Laws exclusive to the States. For example, laws governing Marriage and Drivers licenses. They Laws not reserved to the Federal Government or the States are reserved for the People.
 
I see some still don't get that Congress has to amend the laws, not the Courts.
^^^ Strawman

The courts aren't amending laws.

Nah, it's spot on. You just have no idea what you're talking about, is all. The SC does not make law, a point you apparently can't digest. Ditto for Sgt. It's all moot anyway, since the Constitution has no real force of law any more, hasn't since the Civil War and the Court Lincoln appointed when the South seceded and their Judges vacated their seats., and of course the judicial activism of the Gilded Age finished off whatever was left of it by 1901. It's merely another partisan political hack gang now, whether under 'right' or ' left' wing political appointees.
"The SC does not make law"

That's actually what I said. Glad to see you agree with me.
It is simply amazing how these people do not know the function and power of a Court. The Constitution is crystal clear that the Supreme Court is the final Court for all matters involving the US and State Governments. A ruling has the force of the Constitution behind it.



You are wrong on this point as well. There is Federal Law and there is State Law. The federal Courts have zero power over those Laws exclusive to the States. For example, laws governing Marriage and Drivers licenses. They Laws not reserved to the Federal Government or the States are reserved for the People.
The Supreme Court has TOTAL Control over ANY case involving 2 States or more dumb ass.
 
I see some still don't get that Congress has to amend the laws, not the Courts.
^^^ Strawman

The courts aren't amending laws.

Nah, it's spot on. You just have no idea what you're talking about, is all. The SC does not make law, a point you apparently can't digest. Ditto for Sgt. It's all moot anyway, since the Constitution has no real force of law any more, hasn't since the Civil War and the Court Lincoln appointed when the South seceded and their Judges vacated their seats., and of course the judicial activism of the Gilded Age finished off whatever was left of it by 1901. It's merely another partisan political hack gang now, whether under 'right' or ' left' wing political appointees.
"The SC does not make law"

That's actually what I said. Glad to see you agree with me.
It is simply amazing how these people do not know the function and power of a Court. The Constitution is crystal clear that the Supreme Court is the final Court for all matters involving the US and State Governments. A ruling has the force of the Constitution behind it.



You are wrong on this point as well. There is Federal Law and there is State Law. The federal Courts have zero power over those Laws exclusive to the States. For example, laws governing Marriage and Drivers licenses. They Laws not reserved to the Federal Government or the States are reserved for the People.
State laws cannot violate the U.S. Constitution.

Section. 2.

The judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution, the Laws of the United States, and Treaties made, or which shall be made, under their Authority;—to all Cases affecting Ambassadors, other public Ministers and Consuls;—to all Cases of admiralty and maritime Jurisdiction;—to Controversies to which the United States shall be a Party;—to Controversies between two or more States;— between a State and Citizens of another State,—between Citizens of different States,—between Citizens of the same State claiming Lands under Grants of different States, and between a State, or the Citizens thereof, and foreign States, Citizens or Subjects.
 
^^^ Strawman

The courts aren't amending laws.

Nah, it's spot on. You just have no idea what you're talking about, is all. The SC does not make law, a point you apparently can't digest. Ditto for Sgt. It's all moot anyway, since the Constitution has no real force of law any more, hasn't since the Civil War and the Court Lincoln appointed when the South seceded and their Judges vacated their seats., and of course the judicial activism of the Gilded Age finished off whatever was left of it by 1901. It's merely another partisan political hack gang now, whether under 'right' or ' left' wing political appointees.
"The SC does not make law"

That's actually what I said. Glad to see you agree with me.
It is simply amazing how these people do not know the function and power of a Court. The Constitution is crystal clear that the Supreme Court is the final Court for all matters involving the US and State Governments. A ruling has the force of the Constitution behind it.



You are wrong on this point as well. There is Federal Law and there is State Law. The federal Courts have zero power over those Laws exclusive to the States. For example, laws governing Marriage and Drivers licenses. They Laws not reserved to the Federal Government or the States are reserved for the People.
The Supreme Court has TOTAL Control over ANY case involving 2 States or more dumb ass.


Reread my post girlfriend. Key quote: There is Federal Law and there is State Law. The Federal Courts have zero power over those Laws exclusive to the States.

This concept is enshrined in the Tenth Amendment.


Amendment X

The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people.


Jesus dude this is basic Constitutional shit. WTF????


Tenth Amendment
 
Last edited:
^^^ Strawman

The courts aren't amending laws.

Nah, it's spot on. You just have no idea what you're talking about, is all. The SC does not make law, a point you apparently can't digest. Ditto for Sgt. It's all moot anyway, since the Constitution has no real force of law any more, hasn't since the Civil War and the Court Lincoln appointed when the South seceded and their Judges vacated their seats., and of course the judicial activism of the Gilded Age finished off whatever was left of it by 1901. It's merely another partisan political hack gang now, whether under 'right' or ' left' wing political appointees.
"The SC does not make law"

That's actually what I said. Glad to see you agree with me.
It is simply amazing how these people do not know the function and power of a Court. The Constitution is crystal clear that the Supreme Court is the final Court for all matters involving the US and State Governments. A ruling has the force of the Constitution behind it.



You are wrong on this point as well. There is Federal Law and there is State Law. The federal Courts have zero power over those Laws exclusive to the States. For example, laws governing Marriage and Drivers licenses. They Laws not reserved to the Federal Government or the States are reserved for the People.
State laws cannot violate the U.S. Constitution.

Section. 2.

The judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution, the Laws of the United States, and Treaties made, or which shall be made, under their Authority;—to all Cases affecting Ambassadors, other public Ministers and Consuls;—to all Cases of admiralty and maritime Jurisdiction;—to Controversies to which the United States shall be a Party;—to Controversies between two or more States;— between a State and Citizens of another State,—between Citizens of different States,—between Citizens of the same State claiming Lands under Grants of different States, and between a State, or the Citizens thereof, and foreign States, Citizens or Subjects.


You need to read my post more carefully as well. There Is Federal Law. There is State Law, and there is power in the hands of the People. If Federal and State Law overlap Federal Law generally holds sway. This is called the Supremacy Clause. However there is Law reserved solely in the hands of the States. I gave two examples. Marriage and Drivers Licenses. Federal Law does not control in this instance. Understand? Good. :D
 
Nah, it's spot on. You just have no idea what you're talking about, is all. The SC does not make law, a point you apparently can't digest. Ditto for Sgt. It's all moot anyway, since the Constitution has no real force of law any more, hasn't since the Civil War and the Court Lincoln appointed when the South seceded and their Judges vacated their seats., and of course the judicial activism of the Gilded Age finished off whatever was left of it by 1901. It's merely another partisan political hack gang now, whether under 'right' or ' left' wing political appointees.
"The SC does not make law"

That's actually what I said. Glad to see you agree with me.
It is simply amazing how these people do not know the function and power of a Court. The Constitution is crystal clear that the Supreme Court is the final Court for all matters involving the US and State Governments. A ruling has the force of the Constitution behind it.



You are wrong on this point as well. There is Federal Law and there is State Law. The federal Courts have zero power over those Laws exclusive to the States. For example, laws governing Marriage and Drivers licenses. They Laws not reserved to the Federal Government or the States are reserved for the People.
State laws cannot violate the U.S. Constitution.

Section. 2.

The judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution, the Laws of the United States, and Treaties made, or which shall be made, under their Authority;—to all Cases affecting Ambassadors, other public Ministers and Consuls;—to all Cases of admiralty and maritime Jurisdiction;—to Controversies to which the United States shall be a Party;—to Controversies between two or more States;— between a State and Citizens of another State,—between Citizens of different States,—between Citizens of the same State claiming Lands under Grants of different States, and between a State, or the Citizens thereof, and foreign States, Citizens or Subjects.


You need to read my post more carefully as well. There Is Federal Law. There is State Law, and there is power in the hands of the People. If Federal and State Law overlap Federal Law generally holds sway. This is called the Supremacy Clause. However there is Law reserved solely in the hands of the States. I gave two examples. Marriage and Drivers Licenses. Federal Law does not control in this instance. Understand? Good. :D
Which is not what's being discussed. What's being discussed is do the courts have Constitutional backing to render laws, or parts of them, unconstitutional; and does doing so render said laws, or parts of laws, unenforceable.

The answer to both is yes.
 
Nah, it's spot on. You just have no idea what you're talking about, is all. The SC does not make law, a point you apparently can't digest. Ditto for Sgt. It's all moot anyway, since the Constitution has no real force of law any more, hasn't since the Civil War and the Court Lincoln appointed when the South seceded and their Judges vacated their seats., and of course the judicial activism of the Gilded Age finished off whatever was left of it by 1901. It's merely another partisan political hack gang now, whether under 'right' or ' left' wing political appointees.
"The SC does not make law"

That's actually what I said. Glad to see you agree with me.
It is simply amazing how these people do not know the function and power of a Court. The Constitution is crystal clear that the Supreme Court is the final Court for all matters involving the US and State Governments. A ruling has the force of the Constitution behind it.



You are wrong on this point as well. There is Federal Law and there is State Law. The federal Courts have zero power over those Laws exclusive to the States. For example, laws governing Marriage and Drivers licenses. They Laws not reserved to the Federal Government or the States are reserved for the People.
The Supreme Court has TOTAL Control over ANY case involving 2 States or more dumb ass.


Reread my post girlfriend. Key quote: There is Federal Law and there is State Law. The Federal Courts have zero power over those Laws exclusive to the States.

This concept is enshrined in the Tenth Amendment.


Amendment X

The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people.


Jesus dude this is basic Constitutional shit. WTF????


Tenth Amendment
And my statement is true, the Supreme Court rules all cases involving the States and that INCLUDES State laws that violate Federal laws.
 
"The SC does not make law"

That's actually what I said. Glad to see you agree with me.
It is simply amazing how these people do not know the function and power of a Court. The Constitution is crystal clear that the Supreme Court is the final Court for all matters involving the US and State Governments. A ruling has the force of the Constitution behind it.



You are wrong on this point as well. There is Federal Law and there is State Law. The federal Courts have zero power over those Laws exclusive to the States. For example, laws governing Marriage and Drivers licenses. They Laws not reserved to the Federal Government or the States are reserved for the People.
The Supreme Court has TOTAL Control over ANY case involving 2 States or more dumb ass.


Reread my post girlfriend. Key quote: There is Federal Law and there is State Law. The Federal Courts have zero power over those Laws exclusive to the States.

This concept is enshrined in the Tenth Amendment.


Amendment X

The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people.


Jesus dude this is basic Constitutional shit. WTF????


Tenth Amendment
And my statement is true, the Supreme Court rules all cases involving the States and that INCLUDES State laws that violate Federal laws.


My statement is true. There are many State Laws exclusive to the States where the Federal Government has no controlling interest. That was my point and I am correct.
 
"The SC does not make law"

That's actually what I said. Glad to see you agree with me.
It is simply amazing how these people do not know the function and power of a Court. The Constitution is crystal clear that the Supreme Court is the final Court for all matters involving the US and State Governments. A ruling has the force of the Constitution behind it.



You are wrong on this point as well. There is Federal Law and there is State Law. The federal Courts have zero power over those Laws exclusive to the States. For example, laws governing Marriage and Drivers licenses. They Laws not reserved to the Federal Government or the States are reserved for the People.
State laws cannot violate the U.S. Constitution.

Section. 2.

The judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution, the Laws of the United States, and Treaties made, or which shall be made, under their Authority;—to all Cases affecting Ambassadors, other public Ministers and Consuls;—to all Cases of admiralty and maritime Jurisdiction;—to Controversies to which the United States shall be a Party;—to Controversies between two or more States;— between a State and Citizens of another State,—between Citizens of different States,—between Citizens of the same State claiming Lands under Grants of different States, and between a State, or the Citizens thereof, and foreign States, Citizens or Subjects.


You need to read my post more carefully as well. There Is Federal Law. There is State Law, and there is power in the hands of the People. If Federal and State Law overlap Federal Law generally holds sway. This is called the Supremacy Clause. However there is Law reserved solely in the hands of the States. I gave two examples. Marriage and Drivers Licenses. Federal Law does not control in this instance. Understand? Good. :D
Which is not what's being discussed. What's being discussed is do the courts have Constitutional backing to render laws, or parts of them, unconstitutional; and does doing so render said laws, or parts of laws, unenforceable.

The answer to both is yes.


Who gave the Courts that power?
 
It is simply amazing how these people do not know the function and power of a Court. The Constitution is crystal clear that the Supreme Court is the final Court for all matters involving the US and State Governments. A ruling has the force of the Constitution behind it.



You are wrong on this point as well. There is Federal Law and there is State Law. The federal Courts have zero power over those Laws exclusive to the States. For example, laws governing Marriage and Drivers licenses. They Laws not reserved to the Federal Government or the States are reserved for the People.
State laws cannot violate the U.S. Constitution.

Section. 2.

The judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution, the Laws of the United States, and Treaties made, or which shall be made, under their Authority;—to all Cases affecting Ambassadors, other public Ministers and Consuls;—to all Cases of admiralty and maritime Jurisdiction;—to Controversies to which the United States shall be a Party;—to Controversies between two or more States;— between a State and Citizens of another State,—between Citizens of different States,—between Citizens of the same State claiming Lands under Grants of different States, and between a State, or the Citizens thereof, and foreign States, Citizens or Subjects.


You need to read my post more carefully as well. There Is Federal Law. There is State Law, and there is power in the hands of the People. If Federal and State Law overlap Federal Law generally holds sway. This is called the Supremacy Clause. However there is Law reserved solely in the hands of the States. I gave two examples. Marriage and Drivers Licenses. Federal Law does not control in this instance. Understand? Good. :D
Which is not what's being discussed. What's being discussed is do the courts have Constitutional backing to render laws, or parts of them, unconstitutional; and does doing so render said laws, or parts of laws, unenforceable.

The answer to both is yes.


Who gave the Courts that power?
The Constitution.

The judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution
 
It is simply amazing how these people do not know the function and power of a Court. The Constitution is crystal clear that the Supreme Court is the final Court for all matters involving the US and State Governments. A ruling has the force of the Constitution behind it.



You are wrong on this point as well. There is Federal Law and there is State Law. The federal Courts have zero power over those Laws exclusive to the States. For example, laws governing Marriage and Drivers licenses. They Laws not reserved to the Federal Government or the States are reserved for the People.
State laws cannot violate the U.S. Constitution.

Section. 2.

The judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution, the Laws of the United States, and Treaties made, or which shall be made, under their Authority;—to all Cases affecting Ambassadors, other public Ministers and Consuls;—to all Cases of admiralty and maritime Jurisdiction;—to Controversies to which the United States shall be a Party;—to Controversies between two or more States;— between a State and Citizens of another State,—between Citizens of different States,—between Citizens of the same State claiming Lands under Grants of different States, and between a State, or the Citizens thereof, and foreign States, Citizens or Subjects.


You need to read my post more carefully as well. There Is Federal Law. There is State Law, and there is power in the hands of the People. If Federal and State Law overlap Federal Law generally holds sway. This is called the Supremacy Clause. However there is Law reserved solely in the hands of the States. I gave two examples. Marriage and Drivers Licenses. Federal Law does not control in this instance. Understand? Good. :D
Which is not what's being discussed. What's being discussed is do the courts have Constitutional backing to render laws, or parts of them, unconstitutional; and does doing so render said laws, or parts of laws, unenforceable.

The answer to both is yes.


Who gave the Courts that power?
The Constitution gives the Courts that power as we have linked too several times.
 

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