I believe article 3 says that the supreme Court has jurisdiction to both fact and law.
And of course Washington and Adams nominees to the supreme Court, confirmed by a LOT of America's founding fathers took that stance, and over 200 years later... Not one challenge by Congress to legislate otherwise.
"The judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution, the Laws of the United States, and Treaties made, or which shall be made, under their Authority"
So the Constitution said judicial power will extend to laws of the US.
Yes it does. But the Constitution only gives authority to "Create, Amend, or Nullify" Law to the Congress. Neither the Courts nor the President can create, amend, or nullify law. Period. The President can veto a Law, but that does not nullify it. It sends the law back to Congress.
The court gave itself that authority. Not we the people. And the Constitution says all power must ultimate derive from we the people.
And btw....the Courts decision to nullify law has been challenged successfully. Look up Andrew Jackson. All Branches of Government have a co-equal responsibility to consider Constitutional questions. The problem is the Congress doesn't do its job. However, that does not give the Courts the authority to override the People's Branch of Government by nullifying Law.
Dear
SandSquid and
WelfareQueen
I agree with both of you.
It is still up to Congress or State Legislatures to pass LEGISLATION
to change laws.
When courts strike something down as unconstitutional, that's like midprocess.
That's agreeing it isn't constitutional to enforce, but it hasn't been formally replaced, reformed or amended yet.
In the MEANTIME the old law struck down is being ruled "unenforceable."
So that's why people interpret "unenforceable" with "legalizing" something
but technically that requires a different legislative step.
This is the complaint I have is with people taking the rulings on
Roe V Wade
Obergefell or any other similar ruling cited
where BANS were "struck down as unconstitutional" to enforce
but that's NOT LITERALLY THE SAME AS MAKING ANYTHING LEGAL.
As Kim Davis rightfully argued: only the State legislatures can go back
and rewrite their laws to be constitutional, and that doesn't have to mean
endorsing right to marriage or making same sex marriage legal.
There was at least one state that didn't BAN same sex marriage
but didn't ENDORSE it either. Again, a mid-process stage where
it isn't decided or confirmed in writing yet what the laws are going to state.
SandSquid and
WelfareQueen you are both right
* The Judiciary can rule on facts and law in striking something down
as unconstitutional or upholding that as constitutional
* This is NOT the same as the Legislative role of literally WRITING AND PASSING
the laws or reforms that are going to replace or refine the problems
or conflicts causing laws not to be constitutionally enforceable
* And it is STILL up to the AUTHORITY OF PEOPLE to check BOTH the
judicial and legislative branches to ensure these really reflect, respect
and represent the CONSENT of the public affected by those laws and rulings.
Even if the Judiciary sticks to its given limits on authority, it STILL should never
act outside the bounds of govt and start "establishing or prohibiting" BELIEFS.
So even if we all agree on the differences and limits on the Judiciary separating
it from the Legislative, there REMAINS the issue of Judges not rejecting issues
involves BELIEFS that should be kicked back to PEOPLE AND STATES and NOT
be up to Govt authority to decide such "disputes about BELIEFS" FOR the people.
The Judges should discern what issues would constitute Govt "establishing or
prohibiting" or imposing/discriminating on the basis of belief or creed, and refuse
to rule on those, thus forcing this decision back on the people to work out for themselves
instead of relying on Govt to establish which belief should dominate which is in itself unconstitutional.