Mueller addresses INTENT no less than 10 tiimes between pages 227 & 368.
But not once did he mention, describe or declare a
corrupt intent.
Not once.
Thus, no obstruction.
Why do you refuse to recognize the fact the crime of obstruction requires
corrupt intent, and without said intent, as Mueller said, there can be no obstruction of justice.
Hanging on an adjective. (That's a word that describes another word, like "corrupt" can describe "intent")
You mean "hanging" on the legal definition of obstruction of justice.
The law:
18 U.S. Code § 1505.
Whoever corruptly, or by threats or force, or by any threatening letter or communication influences, obstructs, or impedes or endeavors to influence, obstruct, or impede the due and proper administration of the law...
18 U.S. Code § 1505 - Obstruction of proceedings before departments, agencies, and committees
Mueller:
"The term “corruptly” sets a demanding standard. It requires a concrete showing that a person acted with an intent to obtain an improper advantage for himself or someone else, inconsistent with official duty and the rights of others."
LOLOL
You highlighted the wrong word there, Spunky. Here, lemme help ya...
18 U.S. Code § 1505.
Whoever corruptly, or by threats or force, or by any threatening letter or communication influences, obstructs, or impedes or endeavors to influence, obstruct, or impede the due and proper administration of the law...
See that? No matter how many times you insist corruption is a required element of that statute, the statute itself laughs in your face, along with everyone here who understands it; as the way the statute reads, as an example, an individual can simply Tweet something with the intent of influencing the "proper administration of the law" and be violation of that statute
without committing any corruption.